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slava [35]
3 years ago
15

33% X$90 rounded up to thr next highest dollar minus one cent

Mathematics
1 answer:
ivann1987 [24]3 years ago
6 0
33% times 90 would be $29.7
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Dima020 [189]
This is number 8. the second person got number 9

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3 years ago
<img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20%5Crm%20%5Cint_%7B0%7D%5E%7B%20%20%5Cpi%20%7D%20%5Ccos%28%20%5Ccot%28x%29%20%20%20%20-%20%2
Nikolay [14]

Replace x with π/2 - x to get the equivalent integral

\displaystyle \int_{-\frac\pi2}^{\frac\pi2} \cos(\cot(x) - \tan(x)) \, dx

but the integrand is even, so this is really just

\displaystyle 2 \int_0^{\frac\pi2} \cos(\cot(x) - \tan(x)) \, dx

Substitute x = 1/2 arccot(u/2), which transforms the integral to

\displaystyle 2 \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{\cos(u)}{u^2+4} \, du

There are lots of ways to compute this. What I did was to consider the complex contour integral

\displaystyle \int_\gamma \frac{e^{iz}}{z^2+4} \, dz

where γ is a semicircle in the complex plane with its diameter joining (-R, 0) and (R, 0) on the real axis. A bound for the integral over the arc of the circle is estimated to be

\displaystyle \left|\int_{z=Re^{i0}}^{z=Re^{i\pi}} f(z) \, dz\right| \le \frac{\pi R}{|R^2-4|}

which vanishes as R goes to ∞. Then by the residue theorem, we have in the limit

\displaystyle \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{\cos(x)}{x^2+4} \, dx = 2\pi i {} \mathrm{Res}\left(\frac{e^{iz}}{z^2+4},z=2i\right) = \frac\pi{2e^2}

and it follows that

\displaystyle \int_0^\pi \cos(\cot(x)-\tan(x)) \, dx = \boxed{\frac\pi{e^2}}

7 0
2 years ago
A researcher working in a Human Resources department was interested in gender and sales figures so he conducted a t-test. The me
irina1246 [14]

Answer:

d = \frac{78.24 -66.25}{\sqrt{\frac{7^2 +7^2}{2}}}= 1.713

For the interpretation we consider a value for d small is is between 0-0.2, medium if is between 0.2-0.8 and large if is higher than 0.8.

And on this case 1.713>0.8 so we have a large effect size

This value of d=1.713 are telling to us that the two groups differ by 1.713 standard deviation and we will have a significant difference between the two means.

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The Effect size is a "quantitative measure of the magnitude of the experimenter effect. "

The Cohen's d effect size is given by  the following formula:

d = \frac{\bar X_1 -\bar X_2}{\sqrt{\frac{s^2_1 +s^2_2}{2}}}

Solution to the problem

And for this case we can assume:

\bar X_1 =78.24 the mean for females

\bar X_2 =66.25 the mean for males

s_1 = s_2= 7 represent the deviations for both groups

And if we replace we got:

d = \frac{78.24 -66.25}{\sqrt{\frac{7^2 +7^2}{2}}}= 1.713

For the interpretation we consider a value for d small is is between 0-0.2, medium if is between 0.2-0.8 and large if is higher than 0.8.

And on this case 1.713>0.8 so we have a large effect size

This value of d=1.713 are telling to us that the two groups differ by 1.713 standard deviation and we will have a significant difference between the two means.

4 0
2 years ago
I need help with these two answers please :/
4vir4ik [10]
Rise over run is -2/4 or simplified as -1/2
The second one is
\frac{1 - 3}{4 - 0}  =  \frac{ - 2}{4}

7 0
3 years ago
Compare the following functions: f(x) = 3 sin(x − π) + 4 g(x) graph of a quadratic with points at 1, 5 and 3, 1 and 5, 5 h(x) x
riadik2000 [5.3K]

Answer:

All three functions have the same minimum

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
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