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mihalych1998 [28]
3 years ago
9

A company has an outstanding issue of perpetual preferred stock with an annual dividend of $5 per share. If the required return

on the preferred stock is 6.25%, at what price should the preferred stock sell?
Business
1 answer:
Afina-wow [57]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

$80

Explanation:

The computation of the price of preferred stock to sell is shown below:

Cost of preferred stock = Annual dividend ÷ required return on the preferred stock

= $5 ÷ 6.25%

= $80

Simply we divide the annual dividend by the required return on the preferred stock so that the correct price of preferred stock to sell can be computed

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The following information is available for Felix Company: Net income $300 Decrease in plant and equip. $40 Depreciation expense
zmey [24]

Answer:

$240

Explanation:

The computation of cash flow from operating activities of Felix company is seen below;

= Net income - Decrease in plant and machinery + decrease in expense - increase in deferred assets + gain on sale of assets

= $300 - $40 + $20 - $5 + $35

= $240

Therefore, cash flow from operating income of Felix company is $240

7 0
2 years ago
The term trompe l'oeil refers to work that
agasfer [191]
The term trompe l'oeil refer to work that misleads or deceives someone. 
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3 years ago
Barges' has an asset beta of .57, the risk-free rate is 4.3 percent, and the market risk premium is 7.7 percent. what is the equ
Luden [163]

Barges' has an asset beta of .57, the risk-free rate is 4.3 percent, and the market risk premium is 7.7 percent.

7 0
3 years ago
Determine the market potential for a backpack that has 200,000 prospective buyers who purchase an average of 2 backpack per year
LekaFEV [45]

Answer:

i.The total number of a company sell if it desires a 10% share of this market? is 40,000 units

ii. The % of the market supplies that should capture to break even is 5%

Explanation:

To calculate break even point in unit, use the formula;

Fixed Cost / Contribution Margin.

In this question, Fixed cost is the factory lease cost of one year for $400,000

Contribution margin is the difference betwen Selling Price and Variable Cost.

This will be $50-$30=$20

Therefore, Break even point in unit = $400,000 divided by $20

this will give 20,000 units.

20,000 units is 5% of the market size of (200,000X2) 400,000 units.

I.e. (20,000/400,000)X100=5%

8 0
3 years ago
Imprudential, Inc., has an unfunded pension liability of $800 million that must be paid in 24 years. To assess the value of the
Anon25 [30]

Answer:

101.12 million

Explanation:

<em>The present value of a future cash flow is the amount that can be invested today at a particular rate for a certain number of years to have the future cash flow </em>

The present value of the liability

= FV × (1+r)^(-n)

= 800  × (1.09)^(-24)

= 101.12 million

The present value of this liability= 101.12 million

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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