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Aneli [31]
3 years ago
10

Matt has answered 20/25 of the question on a test . What percent of test Questions has Matt answers

Mathematics
2 answers:
sergey [27]3 years ago
6 0

you need to make the fraction to 100

100/25=

you multiply 20x4

80

marusya05 [52]3 years ago
6 0

answer: 80%

explanation:

to find out what percent he completed, divide what he has completed by the total number

20/25 = 0.8

now, multiply the decimal by 0.8 and multiply by 100 to turn into a fraction

0.8 x 100 = 80

so, he answered 80% so far.

<em>i hope this helped and have a great day! if you need any further assistance with this specific question or i made any mistakes, please let me know!</em>

You might be interested in
The ages (in years) of the 6 employees at a particular computer store are 44, 46, 40, 34, 29, 41
son4ous [18]
step 1
<span>compute the average: add the values and divide by 6
Average =(44+ 46+40+34+29+41)/6=39

step 2
</span><span>Compute the deviations from the average
dev: (44-39)=5,
</span>dev: (46-39)=7
dev: (40-39)=1
dev: (34-39)=-5
dev: (29-39)=-10
dev: (41-39)=2

step 3
<span>Square the deviations and add
sum (dev^2): 5^2+7^2+1</span>^2+-5^2+-10^2+2^2
sum (dev^2): 25+49+1+25+100+4-----> 204

step 4
<span>Divide step #3 by the sample size=6
(typically you divide by sample size-1 to get the sample standard deviation,
 but you are assuming the 6 values are the population,
so
no need to subtract 1, from the sample size.
This result is the variance
Variance =204/6=34

step 5
</span><span>Standard deviation = sqrt(variance)
standard deviation= </span>√<span>(34)------> 5.83

the answer is
5.83</span>


4 0
2 years ago
Got another question for you lovely folk, don’t understand how to do this one either
Brrunno [24]

Answer:

97.12°

Step-by-step explanation:

the value of the highlight angle =

tan~¹ 1/3 + tan~¹ 5/1 =

18.43° + 78.69° = 97.12°

7 0
2 years ago
FP!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! if ur up<br><br> ( 10 x 8 ) + 150
taurus [48]

Answer:

220

Step-by-step explanation:

<u>first we have by Bracket of BODMAS rule then we have to multiply 10 *8 = 80</u>

<u>first we have by Bracket of BODMAS rule then we have to multiply 10 *8 = 80then we have to open bracket 80 +150</u>

<u>first we have by Bracket of BODMAS rule then we have to multiply 10 *8 = 80then we have to open bracket 80 +150 = 220</u>

<u> (10*8) +15</u>

<u>Solution</u>

<u>Solution= (80) +150</u>

<u>Solution= (80) +150= 80+150</u>

<u>Solution= (80) +150= 80+150=. 220</u>

<u>Solution= (80) +150= 80+150=. 220 </u>

8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Please give me an explanation and your work
pishuonlain [190]

Answer:

-0.3*0.2*12, multiply -0.3 by 0.2 to get -0.06, now multiply 12 by it to get, -0.72.

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
Does 6(3−5w)=5(4−2w)−20w have one solution, no solution, or infinitely many solutions? <br><br> plzz
Vikki [24]

Answer:

No solutions

Step-by-step explanation:

18-30w=20-10w-20w

18-30w=20-30w

18-20=30w-30w

-2 does not equal to 0

No solutions

6 0
2 years ago
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