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gulaghasi [49]
2 years ago
13

An advertising executive takes over a Google Search ads campaign. On his Google Ads Recommendations page he notes that the campa

ign's optimization score is 40%. What does this score indicate?
Business
1 answer:
VashaNatasha [74]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

These are the options for the question:

  • The campaign could be improved by 60% if the listed recommendations are followed.  
  • The campaign is 60% less optimal than other company campaigns.
  • The campaign is running 40% over budget.
  • The campaign is 40% optimized for the given keywords chosen by the previous campaign manager.

And this is the correct answer:

The campaign could be improved by 60% if the listed recommendations are followed.  

Explanation:

If the optimization score of the firm's Google Search Ads campaign is 40%, it simply means that it can be improved by 60% in order to reach the full potential of the programme.

It does not mean that the campaign is 60% less optimal than others because the score only measures the firm's own campaign.

And it does not have any direct connection with the campaign's budget or keywords.

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Internet comparison shopping sites like shopping.com and pricegrabber.com allow consumers to compare prices of substitute produc
Komok [63]
The answer is; "these sites have <span>increased the cross-price elasticity for substitute products".
</span>
When we evaluate the responsiveness of the demand for any good towards the change in the price of a related good is known as cross price elasticity of demand and it is always measured in terms of percentage. 
5 0
3 years ago
The market risk premium is computed by: adding the risk-free rate of return to the inflation rate. adding the risk-free rate of
OverLord2011 [107]

Answer:

subtracting the risk-free rate of return from the market rate of return

Explanation:

Market risk premium is the premium over the risk free rate that investors demand for holding a risky asset

Market risk premium = market rate of return - risk free rate

the higher the risk premium, the higher the return investors are demanding and the riskier the investment

for example if risk free rate is 5% , market rate of return in industry A is 10% while in industry B it is 20%

Market premium in A = 10% - 5% = 5%

Market premium in b = 20% - 5% = 15%

3 0
3 years ago
Look at the sales prices change that is being suggested. In particular, Winetki talks about one of the product's prices as doubl
PilotLPTM [1.2K]

The calculation of a revised break-even point in units for the firm as a whole, using the weighted-average contribution margin approach is 1,155,556 units.

<h3>What is the weighted-average contribution margin?</h3>

The weighted-average contribution margin shows the average amount that a group of products or services contribute to meet the fixed costs.

The weighted-average contribution margin can be computed as Aggregate sales - Aggregate variable expenses) ÷ Number of units sold.

<h3>Data and Calculations:</h3>

Aggregate sales revenue = $1,800,000

Aggregate variable costs = $1,125,000

Aggregate contribution margin = $675,000 ($1,800,000 - $1,125,000)

Total units sold = 1,500,000

Total fixed costs = $520,000

Weighted average contribution margin = $0.45 ($675,000/1,500,000)

Break-even point in units = 1,155,556 units ($520,000/$0.45)

Thus, the calculation of a revised break-even point in units for the firm as a whole, using the weighted-average contribution margin approach is 1,155,556 units.

Learn more about break-even analysis at brainly.com/question/21137380

#SPJ1

4 0
1 year ago
On January 2, 20X1, Cole Co. signed an eight-year noncancelable lease for a new machine, requiring $15,000 annual payments at th
zvonat [6]

Answer:

Cole should record amortization expense for the leased machine at $9,000.

Explanation:

Machine cost would be recorded in book at = present value of Aggregate lease payments

Machine cost would be recorded in book at = $108,000

Depreciation (amortization) expense for the leased machine in first year= (Machine cost - salvage value)/Useful life

Depreciation (amortization) expense for the leased machine in  first year= ($108,000 - 0)/12

Depreciation (amortization) expense for the leased machine in  first year= $ 9,000

Therefore, Cole should record amortization expense for the leased machine at $9,000.

7 0
3 years ago
Your local pawn shop loans money at an annual rate of 23 percent and compounds interest weekly. What is the actual rate being ch
Eddi Din [679]

Answer:

D. 25.80 percent

Explanation:

The formula to compute the effective annual rate of the loan is shown below:

= (1 +  annual interest rate ÷ periods)^ number of period - 1

= (1 + 23% ÷ 52)^52 - 1

= (1 + 00442)^52 - 1

= 1.00442^52 - 1

= 1.2579618615  - 1

= 25.80%

There are 52 weeks in a year and we considered the same in the above calculation

6 0
2 years ago
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