Answer: Option B
Step-by-step explanation:
By definition, only those functions that are one to one have an inverse function.
A function is one by one if there are not two different input values,
and
, that have the same output value y
Note that the function
is not a one-to-one function
When x=2 
When x=8 
Note that the function
is not a one-to-one function
When x=1 
When x=-1 
Note that the function
is not a one-to-one function
When x=1 
When x=-1 
Then the answer is the option B.
You can verify that The function
is a one-to-one function and therefore its inverse is a function
Make an equation
Y = 17.95 + 0.87x
Y = total cost, x = miles
153.67 = 17.95 + 0.87x
135.72 = 0.87x
x = 156 miles
9x^5 • 4x^4
9•4= 36
X^5+4= x^9
Your answer is 36x^9
First you need to find the r, if C=2pieR, than 2.4=2pieR now you divide 2.4 by 2 so you got 1.2=pieR now you divide 1.2 by pie and obtained aproximately 0.38 miles, that is your R, now you do pie multiply by 0.38 exposant 2 and there you go, your answer is aproximately 0.45 miles2 :)
5/6x+5/13+20/6
5/6x+30/78+260/78
5/6x+290/78
5/6x+145/39
i hope this helps and i didn't mess up....