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SashulF [63]
3 years ago
14

Sally and Dan must pay 2 points on their new $65,000 loan. What will they have to pay at closing for the points?

Business
1 answer:
gayaneshka [121]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

correct option is B. $1,300

Explanation:

given data

loan = $65,000

pay = 2 points

solution

As we know normally point worth = 1%

and they pay 2 point so that

2 point = 2 % = 0.02

so pay at closing for the points will be

pay closing for the points = 0.02 × loan amount .....................1

pay closing for the points = 0.02 × $65000

pay closing for the points = $1300

so correct option is B. $1,300

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Which senior managers may assume a greater deal of transferability between domestic and international HRM practices?
astraxan [27]

Answer: d. All of the Above

Explanation:

All the above senior managers are more likely to apply more Domestic HRM practices to make them International HRM practices when they are put into a situation where International practices will be needed.

This is because they have been with the Domestic companies for much of their time and so know more about Domestic practices than international.

The first options refers to senior managers in firms with large domestic markets. To be a senior manager demands experience in the market they are in so it is not far fetched to say that they are more knowledgeable in domestic practices than international.

The second option speaks of managers with little International experience meaning they are more likely to engage in transferability between domestic and International practices.

The third option speaks of managers who built their careers on domestic experience. They will find it hard letting go of what has brought them such success so will more likely apply domestic practices on an international scale.

7 0
3 years ago
Modern Federal Bank is setting up a brand-new branch. The cost of the project will be $1.2 million. The branch will create addit
KonstantinChe [14]

Answer:

23.12%

Explanation:

Internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate at which the Net present value (NPV) of a project equals to zero.

Using a financial calculator and the CF function, input the following to find IRR;

Initial investment; CF0 = -1,200,000

Yr1 cashflow inflow ; C01 = 235,000

Yr2 cashflow inflow ; C02 = 412,300

Yr3 cashflow inflow ; C03 = 665,000

Yr4 cashflow inflow ; C04 = 875,000

Then key in IRR CPT = 23.119%

Therefore, the Internal rate of return this expansion is 23.12%

3 0
3 years ago
"Which statements are TRUE about IO tranches? I When interest rates rise, the price of the tranche falls II When interest rates
horrorfan [7]

The available options are:

A. I and III

B. I and IV

C. II and III

D. II and IV

Answer:

C. II and III

Explanation:

IO tranche which is an acronym for Interest Only tranche is defined as a form of tranche which earns interest only from a secured loan which is derived from Principal Only tranche.

However, Interest Only tranche is quite different from a typical bond, simply because when market interest rate increases the rate of prepayment decreases, which in turn makes the rate of maturity to be longer. Thereby when interest rates increase, prices increase, and vice versa.

Hence the true statements are:

II When interest rates rise, the price of the tranche rises

III When interest rates fall, the price of the tranche falls

5 0
3 years ago
Where do banks get money to lend to borrowers?
Marysya12 [62]

The answer is<u> "depositors".</u>


An individual who is making a deposit with the bank is known as a depositor. The depositor is the moneylender of the cash which will be come back to him/her toward the finish of the store time frame.  

A depositor (you) places cash in a banks vault, at that point the bank putts enthusiasm on it, and can utilize it in the event that it needs to. Up to a specific measure of it remains in the bank on the off chance that you need to come and withdraw.

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A company uses the percent of sales method to determine its bad debts expense. At the end of the current year, the company's una
ValentinkaMS [17]

Answer: $5,440

Explanation:

When using the percent of sales method to determine bad debts, the company estimates a percentage that it believes will results in uncollectible debt and then applies it to the sales/revenue figure. The figure that is calculated is then debited along with the debit balance on the Allowance for doubtful accounts to the Bad debts account for the year and credited to the Allowance for doubtful accounts.

This company estimates that they will have 0.6% of credit sales uncollectible.

There are also $790,000 in sales of which all are on credit.

The Uncollectible estimate is therefore,

= 790,000 * 0.6%

= $4,740

This figure is then added to the debit amount on the Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts.

= 4,470 + 700

= $5,440

Note; A debit balance on the Allowance for doubtful debt account signifies that the bad debts were higher than anticipated the last time. This is why the figure is added to the current bad debts expense.

6 0
3 years ago
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