Answer:
33%
Step-by-step explanation:
h steps:
Step 1: We make the assumption that 51 is 100% since it is our output value.
Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with $x$.
Step 3: From step 1, it follows that $100\%=51$.
Step 4: In the same vein, $x\%=17$.
Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:
$100\%=51(1)$.
$x\%=17(2)$.
Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have
$\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{51}{17}$
Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields
$\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{17}{51}$
$\Rightarrow x=33.33\%$
Therefore, $17$ is $33.33\%$ of $51$.
Answer: 6
Explanation: first you have to get rid of the 2 power of 3, 2 x 2 x 2 is 8. Then 15-8=7. Then 42➗7 is 6
N-10+9n-3
n+9n=10n
10-3=7
so the answer is....
-13+10n
First, let's make these two into equations.
The first plan has an initial fee of $40 and costs an additional $0.16 per mile driven.
Our equation would then be
C = 40 + 0.16m
where C is the total cost, and m is the number of miles driven.
The second plan has an initial fee of $51 and costs an additional $0.11 per mile driven.
So, the equation is
C = 51 + 0.11m
where C is the total cost, and m is the number of miles driven.
Now, your question seems to be asking for one mileage for both, equalling one cost. I would go through all the steps I've taken to try and find this for you, but it would probably take hours to type out and read. In short, I'm not entirely sure that an answer like that is possible in this situation, simply because of the large difference in the initial fee of the two plans, along with the sparse common multiples between the two mileage costs.
