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Ede4ka [16]
4 years ago
11

The actual manufacturing overhead incurred at Hogans Corporation during April was $59,000, while the manufacturing overhead appl

ied to Work in Process was $74,000. The company's Cost of Goods Sold was $289,000 prior to closing out its Manufacturing Overhead account. The company closes out its Manufacturing Overhead account to Cost of Goods Sold. Which of the following statements is true?
Manufacturing overhead was overapplied by $15,000; Cost of Goods Sold after closing out the Manufacturing Overhead account is $274,000

Manufacturing overhead was underapplied by $15,000; Cost of Goods Sold after closing out the Manufacturing Overhead account is $274,000

Manufacturing overhead was overapplied by $15,000; Cost of Goods Sold after closing out the Manufacturing Overhead account is $304,000

Manufacturing overhead was underapplied by $15,000; Cost of Goods Sold after closing out the Manufacturing Overhead account is $304,000
Business
1 answer:
balandron [24]4 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Manufacturing overhead was over-applied by $15,000; Cost of Goods Sold after closing out the Manufacturing Overhead account is $274,000

Explanation:

Under / over applied manufacturing overhead = Applied Manufacturing overhead - Actual Manufacturing overhead

Over-applied manufacturing overhead =  $74,000 - $59,000

Over-applied manufacturing overhead =  $15,000

Cost of Goods Sold = $289,000 - $15,000 = $274,000

Manufacturing overhead are over-applied by $15,000 and cost of goods sold is $274,000.

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Alborosie

Answer:

Instructions are listed below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Two alternative locations have been​ identified: Bonham and McKinney. Bonham would have fixed costs of $ 800,000 per year and variable costs of $ 13,000 per standard unit produced. McKinney would have annual fixed costs of $ 920,000 and variable costs of $ 12,000 per standard unit. The finished items sell for $ 29,000 each.

Costs:

Bonham= 800,000 + 13,000*x

McKinney= 920,000 + 12,000*x

1) 800,000 + 13,000*x=920,000 + 12,000*x

1,000x=120,00

x=120 units

2) Because Bonham has a higher variable cost, from the indifference point and below, it generates a higher profit. From 120 units and more it generates less profit than McKinney.

3) Break-even point= fixed costs/ contribution margin

Bonham:

Break-even point= 800,000/(29,000 - 12,000)= 47 units

McKinney:

Break-even point= 920,000/(29,000-13,000)= 58 units

6 0
3 years ago
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gulaghasi [49]

Answer:

transaction costs is your answer

Explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
What do consumers do after making a purchase?
anygoal [31]
Probably evaluate the purchase. Common sense here.
8 0
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How does a payroll accountant use the information in the General Ledger? (You may select more than one answer. The account balan
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Answer: General Leger account balances aggregate data to determine payroll costs .

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Apart from this access to foreign exchange, formalities of custom processes, and dealing with clearing agents wastes a lot of time.

A valid excuse for Mary to make will be: exporters often face voluminous paperwork, complex formalities and many potential delays and errors

7 0
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