Answer:
The answer is 'The slope of g(x) is less than the slope of f(x)'
Step-by-step explanation:
Given the graphs of f(x) and g(x). we have to compare the slops of these two.
The graph of f(x) passes through the points (1,0) and (2,2)
∴
The graph of g(x) passes through the points (0,2) and (2,3)
∴
As
This shows that the
The slope of g(x) is less than the slope of f(x).
The derivative of 1/logx is With the chain rule.
1log(x)=log(x)−1 is ,= -1xlog(x)2 .
The by-product of logₐ x (log x with base a) is 1/(x ln a). Here, the thrilling issue is that we have "ln" withinside the by-product of "log x". Note that "ln" is referred to as the logarithm (or) it's miles a logarithm with base "e".
The by-product of 1/log x is -1/x(log x)^2. Note that 1/logx is the reciprocal of log.
Read more about derivatives;
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