Answer:
45.26
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
read below
Step-by-step explanation:
Alright, archtan /
tan
−
1
(
x
)
is the inverse of tangent. Tan is
sin
cos
. Like the inverse of sin, the inverse of tan is also restricted to quadrants 1 and 4.
Knowing this we are solving for the inverse of tan -1. We are basically being asked the question what angle/radian does tan(-1) equal. Using the unit circle we can see that tan(1)= pi/4.
Since the "Odds and Evens Identity" states that tan(-x) = -tan(x). Tan(-1)= -pi/4.
Knowing that tan is negative in quadrants 2 and 4. the answer is in either of those two quadrants. BUT!!! since inverse of tan is restricted to quadrants 1 and 4 we are left with the only answer -pi/4.
the answer is m=-3n-5/2 or n=2m+5/6
What it is asking is 8 times what equals 48. The best way to do this is by doing the opposite operation. 48 divided by 8 equals 6. Then if you put it in the other way you get 8(6)=48 which works out. So the answer is 6.
Answer:
Yes, they are correct. Hernando divided 6 by 6.
Step-by-step explanation:
Given that:
Hernando ate 2/8 of a pizza for dinner.
Let the pizza be x. Then:
Hernando ate 
Then he gave the rest of the pizza to his friends
Hernando now carried out the following calculations to support his activities;
From the above calculation; we will see that Hernando divided 6 by 6 in both cases to get 
.
Thus, the correct answer is:
Yes, they are correct. Hernando divided 6 by 6.
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
