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3 years ago

Is 1 1/2 greater than less than or equal to 16 in

Mathematics

1 answer:

BigorU [14]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

Less than

Step-by-step explanation:

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How to work it and solve the problem

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Ivahew [28]

Answer:

a) $P(X=0)=(10C0) (0.15)^0 (1-0.15)^{10-0}= 0.1969$

b) $P(X=3)=(10C3) (0.15)^3 (1-0.15)^{10-3}= 0.1298$

c) $P(X \geq 1) = 1- P(X$

$P(X=0)=(10C0) (0.15)^0 (1-0.15)^{10-0}= 0.1969$

So then we have:

$P(X \geq 1) = 1- P(X$

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

$X \sim Binom(n=10, p=0.15)$

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

Part a

For this case we want this probability:

$P(X=0)=(10C0) (0.15)^0 (1-0.15)^{10-0}= 0.1969$

Part b

For this case we want this probability:

$P(X=3)$

And using the probability mass function we got:

$P(X=3)=(10C3) (0.15)^3 (1-0.15)^{10-3}= 0.1298$

Part c

For this case we want this probability:

$P(X \geq 1)$

And we can use the complenet rule and we got:

$P(X \geq 1) = 1- P(X$

$P(X=0)=(10C0) (0.15)^0 (1-0.15)^{10-0}= 0.1969$

So then we have:

$P(X \geq 1) = 1- P(X$

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3 years ago

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Roman55 [17]

The answers would be A,D,E,F because ...

A rational number is any integer, fraction, terminating decimal, or repeating decimal.

Hope this helps! :3

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3 years ago

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Korvikt [17]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago