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3 years ago

10

Hi I'm bored and I want to give away free points!

2 answers:

morpeh [17]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

I love honeymoon fades by sabrina carpenter

Helga [31]3 years ago

4 0

Mystery of love and my kind of woman

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Transpose then formula <br><br> F = (9/5)C + 32<br><br> So that C is the subject of the equation.

Phoenix [80]

Answer:

C = F - 32 /(9/5)

Step-by-step explanation:

F = (9/5)C + 32

Subtract 32 from both sides

F - 32 = (9/5)C + 32 - 32

F - 32 = (9/5)C

Divide both sides by (9/5)

F - 32/(9/5) = (9/5)C/(9/5)

F - 32/(9/5) = C

C = F - 32 /(9/5)

3 0

4 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A basketball player makes a free throw 82.6% of the time. The player attempts 5 free throws. Use a histogram of the binomial dis

DiKsa [7]

Answer:

The most likely outcome is exactly 4 free throws

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

$n = 5$ --- attempts

$p = 82.6\%$ ---- probability of a successful free throw

$p = 0.826$

Required

A histogram to show the most likely outcome

From the question, we understand that the distribution is binomial.

This is represented as:

$P(X = x) = ^nC_x * p^x * (1 - p)^{n-x}$

For x = 0 to 5, where x represents the number of free throws; we have:

$P(X = x) = ^nC_x * p^x * (1 - p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 0) = ^5C_0 * 0.826^0 * (1 - 0.826)^{5-0}$

$P(X = 0) = ^5C_0 * 0.826^0 * (0.174)^{5}$

$P(X = 0) = 1 * 1 * 0.000159 \approx 0.0002$

$P(X = 1) = ^5C_1 * 0.826^1 * (1 - 0.826)^{5-1}$

$P(X = 1) = ^5C_1 * 0.826^1 * (0.174)^4$

$P(X = 1) = 5 * 0.826 * 0.000917 \approx 0.0038$

$P(X = 2) = ^5C_2 * 0.826^2 * (1 - 0.826)^{5-2}$

$P(X = 2) = ^5C_2 * 0.826^2 * (0.174)^{3}$

$P(X = 2) = 10 * 0.682 * 0.005268 \approx 0.0359$

$P(X = 3) = ^5C_3 * 0.826^3 * (1 - 0.826)^{5-3}$

$P(X = 3) = ^5C_3 * 0.826^3 * (0.174)^2$

$P(X = 3) = 10 * 0.5636 * 0.030276 \approx 0.1706$

$P(X = 4) = ^5C_4 * 0.826^4 * (1 - 0.826)^{5-4}$

$P(X = 4) = 5 * 0.826^4 * (0.174)^1$

$P(X = 4) = 5 * 0.4655 * 0.174 \approx 0.4050$

$P(X = 5) = ^5C_5 * 0.826^5 * (1 - 0.826)^{5-5}\\$

$P(X = 5) = ^5C_5 * 0.826^5 * (0.174)^0$

$P(X = 5) = 1 * 0.3845 * 1 \approx 0.3845$

From the above computations, we have:

$P(X = 0) \approx 0.0002$

$P(X = 1) \approx 0.0038$

$P(X = 2) \approx 0.0359$

$P(X = 3) \approx 0.1706$

$P(X = 4) \approx 0.4050$

$P(X = 5) \approx 0.3845$

See attachment for histogram

<em>From the histogram, we can see that the most likely outcome is at: x = 4</em>

<em>Because it has the longest vertical bar (0.4050 or 40.5%)</em>

3 0

3 years ago

How do I do the last one?

TEA [102]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

16 cm3/s

5 0

4 years ago

If 32% of a number is 64, what is the number?<br> A. 50<br> B. 96<br> C.<br> 100<br> D. 200

mote1985 [20]

Let’s call the number “n.” 0,32n=64 (32% is 32 per cent-, or per hundred), and n=64*100/32=100*2=200. Therefore, the answer’s D.

3 0

4 years ago

Read 2 more answers

WILL BE MARKED BRAINLIEST!!!! <br> x-y=4 <br> How do you get the y alone?

yanalaym [24]

The answer is y = x-4.

<u>Step-by-step explanation</u>:

The given expression is x-y=4
Keep y alone on one side and move remaining terms to the other side.

⇒ -y = 4-x

To have y alone, Multiply the above expression with -ve sign on both sides.

⇒ y = x-4

5 0

3 years ago