The answer is B, which is weight of gold. I say this because money is used as a means of exchange, that is; it is used to get goods.
Money is also used to store value because if you pay for something, you value it more.
It is also a unit of account. Hope i helped. Have a nice day.
Answer:
Premium = $5.76 -$5.51 = 0.25
Percentage of premium = 0.25/5.76 x 100
= 4.34% premium
The correct answer is A
Explanation:
This is an indirect quote in which dollar is fixed and shekels is variable. In order to obtain the 180-day forward rate, premium of $0.25 has been deducted. In indirect quote, premium is deducted from the spot rate in order to determine the forward rate ie $5.76 - $0.25 = $5.51. The percentage of premium is calculated as premium divided by spot rate multiplied by 100.
Answer:
a. The true cost of something in its cost of opportunity
Explanation:
Opportunity cost is the cost which is defined as the cost or expense of one item which is lost in order to get the opportunity to do or to consume something else. In simple words, it is the value or the cost of the next best available alternative.
So, when the person select to bought the textbooks through Chegg instead paying the higher price for the same books through the bookstore. Under this situation, the principle applies is the cost of something in its opportunity cost.
Answer:
$238000
Explanation:
The computation of the carrying value of the bond is shown below:
Given that
Face Value of Bonds = $250,000
Proceeds from issuance of bonds = $235,000
Before that we need to compute the following things
Now
Discount on Bonds Payable = Face Value of Bonds - Proceeds from issuance of bonds
= $250,000 - $235,000
= $15,000
Life of Bonds = 10 years
Now
Discount on Bonds amortized annually = Discount on Bonds Payable ÷ Life of Bonds
= $15,000 ÷ 10
= $1,500
Now
Discount amortized is
= Discount on Bonds amortized annually × expired life
= $1,500 × 2
= $3,000
Finally
Carrying Value of Bonds = Issue Price + Discount amortized
= $235,000 + $3.000
= $238,000
Answer:
Option (a) is correct.
Explanation:
Contribution margin per marketing plan = Sales - Variable cost
= $3,000 - $2,000
= $1,000
A.
(1) 
Break even in marketing plan = 400
(2) Break-even in dollars:
= Break-even in marketing plan × Average rate per plan
= 400 × 3,000
= 1,200,000
(3) Margin of safety = Actual sales - Break-even sales in dollars
= 1,500,000 - 1,200,000
= 300,000
= 20%
B.
(1) Contribution margin per marketing plan = Sales - Variable cost
= $4,000 - $2,000
= $2,000
Break even in marketing plan = 200
(2) Break-even in dollars:
= Break-even in marketing plan × Average rate per plan
= 200 × 4,000
= 800,000
(3) Margin of safety = Actual sales - Break-even sales in dollars
= 1,500,000 - 800,000
= 700,000
= 47%
Therefore, option (a) would achieve the margin of safety ratio more than 45%.
