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victus00 [196]
3 years ago
11

A recipe calls for 2/3 cup of flour for every 4 teaspoons of vanilla. How much vanilla should be used for every 1 cups of flour?

Mathematics
1 answer:
tiny-mole [99]3 years ago
6 0

Answer: For 1 cup of flour, there should be 6 teaspoons of vanilla.

Step-by-step explanation:

What I did is that I found what 1 ÷ 2/3 equals. To find that, I used the reciprocal so the new equation would be 1 × 3/2 which equals 3/2. So since 2/3 × 3/2 equals 1, we have to do the same to 4 teaspoons. 4 × 3/2 equals 6. Therefore, there should be 6 teaspoons of vanilla for every one cup of flour.

Hope this helps! Don't hesitate to ask for clarification.

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Step-by-step explanation:

Hey there!

Given;

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\frac{f(2)}{g(2)}  =  \frac{ {2}^{2} + 2 \times 2 - 1 }{3 \times 2 - 2}

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<em><u>Proved!</u></em>

<u>Hope </u><u>it </u><u>helps</u><u>!</u>

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