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Fudgin [204]
3 years ago
11

0.5 points eBookPrintReferences Check my work Check My Work button is now enabledItem 3Item 3 0.5 points Agee Storage issued 37

million shares of its $1 par common stock at $12 per share several years ago. Last year, for the first time, Agee reacquired 1 million shares at $10 per share. Assuming that Agee retires shares it reacquires (restores their status to that of authorized but unissued shares), by what amount will Agee’s total paid-in capital decline if it now reacquires 1 million shares at $16 per share? (
Business
1 answer:
trapecia [35]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Decline in Agee's total paid up capital is $14,000,000

Explanation:

<u>Computation of decline in Paid-Up capital</u>

Particulars                                        Amount

Cash paid for first repurchase      $10,000,000

(1 million shares*$10)

Value of first purchase                   $12,000,000

(1 million * $12                                 <u>                        </u>

Benefit on first repurchase            $2,000,000

Cash paid for second repurchase = $16,000,000

(1 million shares * $16)

Value of second repurchase            $12,000,000

(1 million * $12)                                    <u>                        </u>

Reduction in Total paid-in-capital   <u>$14,000,000</u> ($2 million + $12 million)

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You have been given the following return information for a mutual fund, the market index, and the risk-free rate. You also know
babymother [125]

Answer:

Sharpe ratio = 0.20

Treynor ratio = –0.005

Explanation:

Note: See the attached excel file for the calculations of average rate of returns, standard deviations and beta used in the calculation below.

a. Calculation of Sharpe ratio

Sharpe ratio refers to a  investment measurement that employed to measure the an investment actual that has been adjusted for the risk associated with the investment.

Sharpe ratio can be calculated using the following formula:

Sharpe ratio = (Average fund rate - Average Risk Free rate) / Standard deviation of fund rate = (5.46% - 2.40%) / 15.05% = 0.20

a. Calculation of Treynor ratio

Treynor ratio refers to investment measurement that is calculated to show the risk of certain investments after the volatility of the market has been taking into consideration.

Treynor ratio can be calculated using the following formula:

Treynor ratio = (Average market return rate - Average Risk Free rate) / Beta = (1.96% - 2.40%) / 87.53% = –0.005

Download xlsx
5 0
3 years ago
Why does a country need to have a comparative advantage in a particular product in order to engage in trade with another country
harkovskaia [24]

Answer:

Countries have a comparative advantage in production when they can produce a good or service at a lower opportunity cost than other producers.

5 0
2 years ago
The actual variable cost of goods sold for a product was $140 per unit, while the planned variable cost of goods sold was $136 p
kozerog [31]

Answer:

$326,400 is the variable cost quantity factor while $56,000 is the unit cost factor

Explanation:

The variable cost quantity factor is a measure of the difference between the planned and actual units  multiplied by planned variable cost.  

That is Variable Cost quantity factor = (planned units  - actual units sold) x        planned variable cost

                                                            = (14000-2400) - 14000) x $136

                                                            = (11600 - 14000) x $136

                                                            =  -$326,400

Unit Cost factor = $(140 - 136) x 14000 units

                          =$56,000

3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
During the current year, Elk Company incurred the following direct labor costs: January $40,000 and February $60,000. Elk uses a
Rom4ik [11]

Answer:

January Overheads are <u>under-applied</u> by $2,000.

Explanation:

When,

Actual overheads > Applied overheads we say overheads are under-applied.

Actual overheads < Applied overheads we say overheads are over-applied.

Where,

Applied overheads = Predetermined overhead rate × Actual Activity

Therefore,

Applied overheads (January) = 120% × $40,000

                                                = $48,000

Actual overheads (January) = $50,000.

Conclusion

It can be seen that from the above : Actual overheads : $50,000 > Applied overhead : $48,000, therefore overheads were under-applied.

Amount of under-applied overheads = $50,000 - $48,000

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5 0
3 years ago
At January 1, 2020, Windsor Company had plan assets of $303,000 and a projected benefit obligation of the same amount. During 20
Arte-miy333 [17]

Answer:

The answer is well illustrated as below

Explanation:

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1 & 2. Expenses which includes service cost and interest cost

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Dr Service cost  $27,100

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Cr Pension Liability        $57,400

3. Actual return increases the Plan Asset

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Cr Actual return $25,700

4. Contributions made increases the Plan Asset because it is an increase in the investment.

So the journal entry would be:

Dr Plan Asset $20,000

Cr Cash Asset        $20,000

5. The benefits paid to employees are decrease in both pension asset and the pension liability. (We had actually borrowed money from the employees and had invested that money so paying off the benefits actually decreases the pension liability and assets).

So the double entry would be:

Dr Pension Liability $17,700

Cr            Pension Assets $17,700

Kindly input the above values in the following worksheet:

4 0
3 years ago
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