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vladimir2022 [97]
3 years ago
11

For any object, the greater the force that's applied to it, the greater its ____ will be.

Physics
2 answers:
Masteriza [31]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

For any object, the greater the force that's applied to it, the greater its <em>acceleration</em> will be.

Explanation:

The statement can be explained using Newton's second law of motion that states, "A net Force 'F' applied on a body produces acceleration 'a' in it which is directly proportion to the Force applied and inversely proportional to the mass of the object."

We can conclude:

F ∝ a

ser-zykov [4K]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The other guy is correct. Acceleration

Explanation:

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Answer:

Explanation:

Given that,

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And the magnetic force

F =−( 3.30×10−7N )i+( 7.60×10−7N )j

Let the velocity be V(xi + yj + zk)

Then, the force is given as

Note i×i=j×j×k×k=0

i×j=k. j×i=-k

j×k=i. k×j=-i

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−( 3.30×10−7N )i+( 7.60×10−7N )j =

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−( 3.30×10−7N )i+( 7.60×10−7N )j=

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−( 3.30×10−7N )i+( 7.60×10−7N )j=

q( -1.2y i + 1.2x j)

So comparing comparing coefficients

let compare x axis component

-( 3.30×10−7N )i=-1.2qy i

−3.30×10−7N = -1.2qy

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y= -3.3×10^-7/-1.2×-5.10×10^-9)

y=-53.92m/s

Let compare y-axisaxis

7.6×10−7N j = 1.2qx j

7.6×10−7N = 1.2qx

x= 7.6×10^-7/-1.2q

x= 7.6×10^-7/1.2×-5.10×10^-9)

x=-124.18m/s

a. Then, the velocity of the x component is x= -124.18m/s

b. Also, the velocity component of the y axis is =-53.92m/s

c. We will compute

V•F

V=-124.18i -53.92j

F=−( 3.30×10−7 N )i+( 7.60×10−7 N )j

Note

i.j=j.i=0. Also i.i = j.j =1

V•F is

(-124.18i-53.92j)•−(3.30×10−7N)i+(7.60×10−7 N )j =

4.1×10^-5 - 4.1×10^-5=0

V•F=0

d. Angle between V and F

V•F=|V||F|Cosx

0=|V||F|Cos

Cosx=0

x= arccos(0)

x=90°

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