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3 years ago

A recipe calls for 2 and 2/3 cups of flour. Terell wants to make 3/4 of the recipe

Mathematics

1 answer:

Rama09 [41]3 years ago

6 0

2 cups are needed to make 3/4 of the recipe.

Multiply 2 2/3 by 3/4, you will get the answer of 2

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Using the formula C=2pi r find the circumference of a circle with diameter of 28 inches. Round your answer to the nearest inch.

Ivenika [448]

Answer: 88 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that the formula to find the circumference of circle is given by :-

$C=2\pi r$ , where r is the radius of the circle.

Given : Diameter of circle = 28 inches

Also, diameter is twice of radius.

i.e. 2r=28

Therefore, the circumference of circle will be :-

$C=2\pi r=(2r)\pi=28\times(3.14)=87.92text{ inches}\approx88\text{ inches}$

Hence, the circumference of circle is 88 inches.

5 0

3 years ago

Write the ratio for sin A. A 17 15 с B sin A=

Firlakuza [10]

Answer:

0.292371705 if A=17

0.258819045 if A=15

Step-by-step explanation:

What are all the other options i dont understand

6 0

3 years ago

The volume V of an ice cream cone is given by V = 2 3 πR3 + 1 3 πR2h where R is the common radius of the spherical cap and the c

Nuetrik [128]

Answer:

The change in volume is estimated to be 17.20 $\rm{in^3}$

Step-by-step explanation:

The linearization or linear approximation of a function $f(x)$ is given by:

$f(x_0+dx) \approx f(x_0) + df(x)|_{x_0}$ where $df$ is the total differential of the function evaluated in the given point.

For the given function, the linearization is:

$V(R_0+dR, h_0+dh) = V(R_0, h_0) + \frac{\partial V(R_0, h_0)}{\partial R}dR + \frac{\partial V(R_0, h_0)}{\partial h}dh$

Taking $R_0=1.5$ inches and $h=3$ inches and evaluating the partial derivatives we obtain:

$V(R_0+dR, h_0+dh) = V(R_0, h_0) + \frac{\partial V(R_0, h_0)}{\partial R}dR + \frac{\partial V(R_0, h_0)}{\partial h}dh\\V(R, h) = V(R_0, h_0) + (\frac{2 h \pi r}{3} + 2 \pi r^2)dR + (\frac{\pi r^2}{3} )dh$

substituting the values and taking $dx=0.1$ and $dh=0.3$ inches we have:

$V(R_0+dR, h_0+dh) =V(R_0, h_0) + (\frac{2 h \pi r}{3} + 2 \pi r^2)dR + (\frac{\pi r^2}{3} )dh\\V(1.5+0.1, 3+0.3) =V(1.5, 3) + (\frac{2 \cdot 3 \pi \cdot 1.5}{3} + 2 \pi 1.5^2)\cdot 0.1 + (\frac{\pi 1.5^2}{3} )\cdot 0.3\\V(1.5+0.1, 3+0.3) = 17.2002\\\boxed{V(1.5+0.1, 3+0.3) \approx 17.20}$

Therefore the change in volume is estimated to be 17.20 $\rm{in^3}$

4 0

3 years ago

O is the centre of the circle and ABC and EDC are tangents to the circle

nataly862011 [7]

Answer:

what is your question?

7 0

3 years ago

Use series to verify that <img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=y%3De%5E%7Bx%7D" id="TexFormula1" title="y=e^{x}" alt="y=e^{

SVETLANKA909090 [29]

$y = e^x\\\\\displaystyle y = \sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{x^k}{k!}\\\\\displaystyle y= 1+x+\frac{x^2}{2!} + \frac{x^3}{3!}+\ldots\\\\\displaystyle y' = \frac{d}{dx}\left( 1+x+\frac{x^2}{2!} + \frac{x^3}{3!}+\frac{x^4}{4!}+\ldots\right)\\\\$

$\displaystyle y' = \frac{d}{dx}\left(1\right)+\frac{d}{dx}\left(x\right)+\frac{d}{dx}\left(\frac{x^2}{2!}\right) + \frac{d}{dx}\left(\frac{x^3}{3!}\right) + \frac{d}{dx}\left(\frac{x^4}{4!}\right)+\ldots\\\\\displaystyle y' = 0+1+\frac{2x^1}{2*1} + \frac{3x^2}{3*2!} + \frac{4x^3}{4*3!}+\ldots\\\\\displaystyle y' = 1 + x + \frac{x^2}{2!}+ \frac{x^3}{3!}+\ldots\\\\\displaystyle y' = \sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{x^k}{k!}\\\\\displaystyle y' = e^{x}\\\\$

This shows that $y' = y$ is true when $y = e^x$

-----------------------

Note 1: A more general solution is $y = Ce^x$ for some constant C.
Note 2: It might be tempting to say the general solution is $y = e^x+C$ , but that is not the case because $y = e^x+C \to y' = e^x+0 = e^x$ and we can see that $y' = y$ would only be true for C = 0, so that is why $y = e^x+C$ does not work.

6 0

3 years ago