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3 years ago

15

Why is no energy required in passive transport?

1 answer:

fredd [130]3 years ago

8 0

No energy is needed because the substances are moving from an area where they have a higher concentration to an area where they have a lower concentration.

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A magnetic field would be produced by a beam of

kumpel [21]

3 protons should be your answer

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3 years ago

Lexy throws a dart with an initial velocity of 25 m/s at an angle of 60° relative to the ground. what is the approximate vertica

Serjik [45]

An initial velocity is:
v o = 25 m/s
The vertical component of the initial velocity:
v o y = v o * sin 60° =
= v o * √3 / 2 = 25 m/s * √3 / 2 = 21.65 m/s
Answer:
The approximate vertical component of the initial velocity is 21.65 m/s.

7 0

4 years ago

Read 2 more answers

The mass of a planet is 3.7 x 1024 kg. If the planet has a radius of 9.2 x 106 m what is the acceleration of gravity for a perso

nalin [4]

Explanation:

It s given that,

Mass of a planet, $M=3.7\times 10^{24}\ kg$

Radius of a planet, $R=9.2\times 10^{6}\ m$

(1) We need to find the acceleration due to gravity for a person on the surface of the planet. Its formula is given by :

$g=\dfrac{GM}{R^2}$

$g=\dfrac{6.67\times 10^{-11}\ Nm^2/kg^2\times 3.7\times 10^{24}\ kg}{(9.2\times 10^{6}\ m)^2}$

$g=2.91\ m/s^2$

(2) The escape velocity is given by :

$v=\sqrt{\dfrac{2GM}{R}}$

$v=\sqrt{{\dfrac{2\times 6.67\times 10^{-11}\ Nm^2/kg^2\times 3.7\times 10^{24}\ kg}{9.2\times 10^{6}\ m}}$

v = 7324.61 m/s

Hence, this is the required solution.

3 0

3 years ago

The wave function of a particle is exp(i(kx-omegat)), where x is distance, t is time, and k and co are positive real numbers. Th

Step2247 [10]

Answer:

Momentum, $p=\hbar k$

Explanation:

The wave function of a particle is given by :

$y=exp[i(kx-\omega t)]$ ...............(1)

Where

x is the distance travelled

t is the time taken

k is the propagation constant

$\omega$ is the angular frequency

The relation between the momentum and wavelength is given by :

$p=\dfrac{h}{\lambda}$ ............(2)

From equation (1),

$k=\dfrac{2\pi}{\lambda}$

$\lambda=\dfrac{2\pi}{k}$

Use above equation in equation (2) as :

$p=\dfrac{h k}{2\pi }$

Since, $\dfrac{h}{2\pi}=\hbar$

$p=\hbar k$

So, the x-component of the momentum of the particle is $\hbar k$ . Hence, this is the required solution.

8 0

4 years ago

What concept or principle best explains why

andreev551 [17]

Answer:

d. Newton's first law

I hope this helps you

5 0

3 years ago