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koban [17]
3 years ago
11

If the acceleration of an object is zero at some instant in time, what can be said about its velocity at that time? 1. It is neg

ative. 2. It is positive. 3. It is not changing at that time. 4. Unable to determine. 5. It is zero.
Physics
1 answer:
Mkey [24]3 years ago
5 0

3. It is not changing at that time

Explanation:

If the acceleration of a body is zero at some instant in time, it implies that the velocity is not changing at that point in time. Velocity is the rate of change of displacement with time.

✓Acceleration and velocity shares a very close relationship.

✓ For a body to accelerate, the velocity must change. Acceleration is defined as the rate of change of velocity with time.

✓If at any point, a body moves with constant velocity i.e the velocity does not change with time, the acceleration becomes zero.

✓ For acceleration to occur, a body must change velocity.

Learn more:

Acceleration brainly.com/question/6323625

#learnwithBrainly

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It's mostly used in CHEMICAL PROCESSES.
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3 years ago
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Consider a cyclotron in which a beam of particles of positive charge q and mass m is moving along a circular path restricted by
Ulleksa [173]

A) v=\sqrt{\frac{2qV}{m}}

B) r=\frac{mv}{qB}

C) T=\frac{2\pi m}{qB}

D) \omega=\frac{qB}{m}

E) r=\frac{\sqrt{2mK}}{qB}

Explanation:

A)

When the particle is accelerated by a potential difference V, the change (decrease) in electric potential energy of the particle is given by:

\Delta U = qV

where

q is the charge of the particle (positive)

On the other hand, the change (increase) in the kinetic energy of the particle is (assuming it starts from rest):

\Delta K=\frac{1}{2}mv^2

where

m is the mass of the particle

v is its final speed

According to the law of conservation of energy, the change (decrease) in electric potential energy is equal to the increase in kinetic energy, so:

qV=\frac{1}{2}mv^2

And solving for v, we find the speed v at which the particle enters the cyclotron:

v=\sqrt{\frac{2qV}{m}}

B)

When the particle enters the region of magnetic field in the cyclotron, the magnetic force acting on the particle (acting perpendicular to the motion of the particle) is

F=qvB

where B is the strength of the magnetic field.

This force acts as centripetal force, so we can write:

F=m\frac{v^2}{r}

where r is the radius of the orbit.

Since the two forces are equal, we can equate them:

qvB=m\frac{v^2}{r}

And solving for r, we find the radius of the orbit:

r=\frac{mv}{qB} (1)

C)

The period of revolution of a particle in circular motion is the time taken by the particle to complete one revolution.

It can be calculated as the ratio between the length of the circumference (2\pi r) and the velocity of the particle (v):

T=\frac{2\pi r}{v} (2)

From eq.(1), we can rewrite the velocity of the particle as

v=\frac{qBr}{m}

Substituting into(2), we can rewrite the period of revolution of the particle as:

T=\frac{2\pi r}{(\frac{qBr}{m})}=\frac{2\pi m}{qB}

And we see that this period is indepedent on the velocity.

D)

The angular frequency of a particle in circular motion is related to the period by the formula

\omega=\frac{2\pi}{T} (3)

where T is the period.

The period has been found in part C:

T=\frac{2\pi m}{qB}

Therefore, substituting into (3), we find an expression for the angular frequency of motion:

\omega=\frac{2\pi}{(\frac{2\pi m}{qB})}=\frac{qB}{m}

And we see that also the angular frequency does not depend on the velocity.

E)

For this part, we use again the relationship found in part B:

v=\frac{qBr}{m}

which can be rewritten as

r=\frac{mv}{qB} (4)

The kinetic energy of the particle is written as

K=\frac{1}{2}mv^2

So, from this we can find another expression for the velocity:

v=\sqrt{\frac{2K}{m}}

And substitutin into (4), we find:

r=\frac{\sqrt{2mK}}{qB}

So, this is the radius of the cyclotron that we must have in order to accelerate the particles at a kinetic energy of K.

Note that for a cyclotron, the acceleration of the particles is achevied in the gap between the dees, where an electric field is applied (in fact, the magnetic field does zero work on the particle, so it does not provide acceleration).

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4 years ago
A sealed test tube traps 25.0 cm3 of air at a pressure of 1.00 atm and temperature of 18°C. The test tube’s stopper has a diamet
puteri [66]

Answer:

180° C

Explanation:

First we start by finding the area of the stopper.

A = πd²/4, where d = 1.5 cm = 0.015 m

A = 3.142 * 0.015² * ¼

A = 1.767*10^-4 m²

Next we find the force on the stopper

F = (P - P•)A, where

F = 10 N

P = pressure inside the tube,

P• = 1 atm

10 = (P - 101325) * 1.767*10^-4

P - 101325 = 10/1.767*10^-4

P - 101325 = 56593

P = 56593 + 101325

P = 157918 Pascal

Now, remember, in an ideal gas,

P1V1/T1 = P2V2/T2, where V is constant, then we have

P1/T1 = P2/T2, and when we substitute the values, we have

101325/(273 + 18) = 157918/ T2

101325/291 = 157918/ T2

T2 = (157918 * 291)/101325

T2 = 453 K

T2 = 453 - 273 = 180° C

3 0
4 years ago
A 5kg ball is on top of the school building at a height of 40m above the ground.
mojhsa [17]

Answer:

A-Caclcuate the potential energy of the ball at that height

Explanation:

(a). Mass of the Body = 10 kg.

Height = 10 m.

Acceleration due to gravity = 9.8 m/s².

Using the Formula,Potential Energy = mgh

= 10 × 9.8 × 10 = 980 J.

(b). Now, By the law of the conservation of the Energy, Total amount of the energy of the system remains constant.

∴ Kinetic Energy before the body reaches the ground is equal to the Potential Energy at the height of 10 m.

∴ Kinetic Energy = 980 J.

(c). Kinetic Energy = 980 J.

Mass of the ball = 10 kg.

∵ K.E. = 1/2 × mv²

∴ 980 = 1/2 × 10 × v²

∴ v² = 980/5

⇒ v² = 196

∴ v = 14 m/s.

3 0
2 years ago
A crane raises a crate with a mass of 75 kg to a height of 10 m. Given that the
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Answer: C. 7,350 J

Explanation:

Just did it in Apex

7 0
3 years ago
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