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IRISSAK [1]
3 years ago
12

Suppose you are an astronaut and you have been stationed on a distant planet. you would like to find the acceleration due to the

gravitational force on this planet so you devise an experiment. you throw a rock up in the air with an initial velocity of 11 m/s and use a stopwatch to record the time it takes to hit the ground. if it takes 7.0 s for the rock to return to the same location from which it was released, what is the acceleration due to gravity on the planet?
Physics
2 answers:
Neporo4naja [7]3 years ago
6 0
Interesting ...

gravity can be considered as *constant* acceleration, then you have:

h = v0*t + 1/2*g*t^2,

Final height is the same as the initial = 0

0 = 11*7 +1/2*g*7^2 ---> g = -11*7*2/7^2 = -22/7 m/s^2

Minus because it goes down, You can say g_planet = 22/7 m/s^2 ~ 3.14 m/s^2. Earth's one on its surface is about 9.81 m/s^2, so this planet has 3 times less gravity. It may be 1/3 the radius of the Earth, assuming same density. This is not asked! :)
Alja [10]3 years ago
4 0

Answer: g = -3.143 m/s²

Explanation: To determine acceleration due to the gravitational force, it can be used the following formula:

v = v₀ + gt, where:

v₀ is the initial velocity;

g is acceleration due to gravity

t is the time to return to the point of origin

When the rock return to the point of origin, there is no velocity, so v = 0.

The time to go up is the same to go down, so t = \frac{t}{2} = \frac{7}{2}.

Substituing in the formula:

v = v₀ + gt

0 = 11 + g.\frac{7}{2}

g = \frac{(0 - 11).2}{7}

g = - 3.143

The acceleration due to the gravitational force is g = - 3.143 m/s².

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Crazy boy [7]
R2^ 2 / R1 ^2 = g1 / g2 = 38 

<span>R2 = R1 x √38 = 6.1644* R1 </span>

<span>R2 = 6.1644 x 6378 000 = 39316632.5 m</span>
8 0
3 years ago
Studen
Vesna [10]

Complete Question

A football coach walks 18 meters westward, then 12 meters eastward, then 28 meters westward, and finally 14 meters eastward.

a

From this motion what is the distance covered

b

What is the magnitude and direction of the displacement

Answer:

a

  D =   72 \  m

b

Magnitude

             d =  - 20 \ m

 Direction  

West

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

The first distance covered westward is d_w_1  =  18 \  m /tex]     The  first distance covered eastward is [tex]d_e1 =  12 \  m /tex]      The second distance covered westward is [tex]d_w_2  =  28 \  m /tex]      The  second distance covered eastward is [tex]d_e2 =  14 \  m /tex]   Generally the distance covered is mathematically represented as       [tex]D =  d_w1 + d_w2 + d_e1 + d_e2

=> D =   18 + 28 + 12 +  14

=> D =   72 \  m

For the second question eastward is in the direction of the positive x-axis so it would be positive and westward is in the direction of the negative x-axis so it would be negative

The magnitude of the displacement is

d =  -d_w1 -d_w2 + d_e1 + d_e2

=>  d =  -18-28 + 12 + 14

=> d =  - 20 \ m

The direction is west

7 0
3 years ago
An organ pipe open at both ends has two successive harmonics with frequencies of 220 Hz and 240 Hz. What is the length of the pi
Harman [31]

Answer:

The  length is  l  =  8.6 \  m

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The frequencies of the two successive harmonics are f_1 =  220 \ Hz ,  f_2  =  240 \  Hz

   The speed of sound in the air is  v_s  =  343 \  m/s

Generally the frequency of a given harmonic is mathematically represented as

     f_n  =  \frac{n  v  }{2l}

Here  n defines  the position of the harmonics

Now since the position of both harmonic is not know but we know that they successive then we can represented them mathematically as

    220  =  \frac{n v}{2l}

and  

     240  =  \frac{(n+1) v}{2l}

So

   \frac{(n + 1 ) v}{2l} - \frac{n v}{2l}  =  240-220

=>  \frac{v}{2l}  =  20

=>   l  =  8.6 \  m

7 0
3 years ago
A rectangular loop of area A is placed in a region where the magnetic field is perpendicular to the plane of the loop. The magni
mina [271]

Answer:

Induced emf, \epsilon=-A\dfrac{B_{max}e^{-t/\tau}}{\tau}

Explanation:

The varying magnetic field with time t is given by according to equation as :

B=B_{max}e^{-t/\tau}

Where

B_{max}\ and\ t are constant

Let \epsilon is the emf induced in the loop as a function of time. We know that the rate of change of magnetic flux is equal to the induced emf as:

\epsilon=-\dfrac{d\phi}{dt}

\epsilon=-\dfrac{d(BA)}{dt}

\epsilon=-A\dfrac{d(B)}{dt}

\epsilon=-A\dfrac{d(B_{max}e^{-t/\tau})}{dt}

\epsilon=A\dfrac{B_{max}e^{-t/\tau}}{\tau}

So, the induced emf in the loop as a function of time is A\dfrac{B_{max}e^{-t/\tau}}{\tau}. Hence, this is the required solution.

7 0
3 years ago
Planets that are cold have only a small amount of gravity
Nonamiya [84]
There is no theoretical OR observational evidence for that statement.
4 0
4 years ago
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