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Daniel [21]
1 year ago
13

A lorenz curve represents the cumulative percentage of total income received along the ________ and the cumulative share of popu

lation along the ________
Physics
1 answer:
guajiro [1.7K]1 year ago
7 0

A lorenz curve represents the cumulative percentage of total income received along the horizontal axis and the cumulative share of population along the vertical axis.

The distribution of the cumulative percent of occurrences by the cumulative percent of population is shown graphically by the Lorenz Curve. By expanding the neighbourhood income quintile group, the horizontal axis (x-axis) of the curve shows the cumulative percent of persons in the population, and the vertical axis (y-axis) shows the cumulative percent of events in the population.

The Lorenz curve can be described as the proportion of the population that the neighbourhood income quintile represents holding the proportion of population events.

Learn more about lorenz curve here:

brainly.com/question/14233099

#SPJ4

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In Millikan's experiment, an oil drop of radius 1.362 μm and density 0.888 g/cm3 is suspended in chamber C when a downward-point
Misha Larkins [42]

Answer:

The charge on the oil drop is 3e

Explanation:

F = qE

Where;

F is the applied force in Newton

E is the electric field potential N/C

q is charge in C

Given;

Radius, r = 1.362 μm = 1.362 X 10⁻⁶ m

density, ρ = 0.888 g/cm³ = 0.888 X 10³ kg/m³

Electric field potential = 1.92 ✕ 10⁵ N/C

F =mg

mass of the oil drop = density, ρ  X volume of the oil drop

volume of the oil drop (spherical) =  (4/3)πr³ = 1.3333π(1.362 X 10⁻⁶)³

⇒ volume of the oil drop = 10.584 X 10⁻¹⁸ m³

mass of the oil drop = 0.888 X 10³ (kg/m³) X 10.584 X 10⁻¹⁸ (m³)

⇒ mass of the oil drop = 9.399 X 10⁻¹⁵ kg

⇒ F =mg = 9.399 X 10⁻¹⁵ kg X 9.8 = 9.21 X10⁻¹⁴ N

F = qE

q = F/E

q = (9.21 X10⁻¹⁴)/(1.92 ✕ 10⁵) = 4.797 X 10⁻¹⁹ C

In terms of e

1e = 1.6 X10⁻¹⁹ C

=  (4.797 X 10⁻¹⁹ C)/(1.6 X10⁻¹⁹ C) = 3e

Therefore, the charge on the oil drop is 3e

7 0
2 years ago
Why do birds not get shock when they<br>sit on high power live wire but we do?<br>​
Marina86 [1]

Answer:

Their bodies don't conduct electricity like we do.

Explanation:

6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Momentum is a vector quantity because it includes velocity, which is also a
zvonat [6]

Answer: A; True

Explanation: Momentum is known to be a vector quality, and thus has been proven by modern scientists and resulting in this answer being true.

Hope this helps <3

Stay safe, stay warm

-Carrie

Ps. it would mean a lot if you marked brainliest (=

7 0
2 years ago
We are designing a crude propulsion mechanism for a science fair demonstration. One of our team members stands on a skateboardth
Scrat [10]

Answer:

greater speed will be obtained for the elastic collision,

Explanation:

To answer this exercise we must find the speed that the sail acquires after each impact.

Let's start by hitting a ball of clay.

The system is formed by the candle and the clay balls, therefore the forces during the collision are internal and the moment is conserved.

initial instant. before the crash

         p₀ = m v₀

where m is the mass of the ball and vo its initial velocity, we are assuming that the candle is at rest

final instant. After the crash

the mass of the candle is M

         p_f = (m + M) v

the moment is preserved

          p₀ = p_f

          m v₀ = (m + M) v

          v = \frac{m}{m+M} \ v_o

for when n balls have collided

          v = \frac{m}{n \ m + M}  v₀

Now let's analyze the case of the bouncing ball (elastic)

     

initial instant

        p₀ = m v₀

final moment

        p_f = m v_{1f} + M v_{2f}

        p₀ = p_f

        m v₀ = m v_{1f} + M v_{2f}

       m (v₀ - v_{1f}) = M v_{2f}

this case corresponds to an elastic collision whereby the kinetic energy is conserved

        K₀ = K_f

        ½ m v₀² = ½ m v_{1f}² + ½ M v_{2f}²

        v₁ = v_{1f}            v₂ = v_{2f}

        m (v₀² - v₁²) = M v₂²

let's use the identity

         (a² - b²) = (a + b) (a-b)

we write our equations

         m (v₀ - v₁) = M v₂                       (1)

         m (v₀ - v₁) (v₀ + v₁) = M v₂²

let's divide these equations

         v₀ + v₁ = v₂

Let's look for the final speeds

we substitute in equation 1

          m (v₀ - v₁) = M (v₀ + v₁)

          v₀ (m -M) = (m + M) v₁

          v₁ = \frac{m-M}{m + M}   v₀

we substitute in equation 1 to find v₂

            \frac{M}{m}  v₂ = v₀ -  \frac{m-M}{m+M}   v₀

            v₂ = \frac{m}{M}  ( 1 - \frac{m-M}{m+M} ) \ v_o

            v₂ = \frac{m}{M}  ( \frac{2M}{m+M} ) \ \ v_o

            v₂ = \frac{2m}{m +M}  \ v_o  

Let's analyze the results for inelastic collision with each ball that collides with the sail, the total mass becomes larger so the speed increase is smaller and smaller.

In the case of elastic collision, the increase in speed is constant with each ball since the total mass remains invariant.

Consequently, greater speed will be obtained for the elastic collision, that is, the ball will bounce.

8 0
2 years ago
If the fundamental frequency of a musical instrument is 42Hz, what is the frequency of the second harmonic?
timurjin [86]
For the majority of instruments f = n f0 where f is the resonating frequency, n is any whole number and f0 is the fundamental. 
<span>This applies to trumpets, violins, flutes and a broad range. </span>
<span>In such a </span>case<span> the first harmonic would be at n=1 and the second harmonic would be at n=2 </span>

<span>which gives a frequency of 84 Hz</span>
7 0
2 years ago
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