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Anni [7]
3 years ago
15

The angle between incident ray and reflected ray is 80 degrees. What is the value of angle of incidence?

Physics
1 answer:
saul85 [17]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The angle of incident ray is 40°.

Explanation:

Given that the angle of incident and reflected ray are the same. In this question, we had given that both angles added up will gives you 80° so you have to divide it by 2 :

incident + reflected = 80°

Let incident = reflected = θ

θ + θ = 80°

2θ = 80°

θ = 80° ÷ 2

= 40°

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shepuryov [24]

Answer:

Explanation:

 For entry of light into tube of unknown refractive index

sin ( 90 - 25 ) / sinr = μ , μ is the refractive index of the tube , r is angle of refraction in the medium of tube

r = 90 - C where C is critical angle between μ and body medium in which tube will be inserted.

sin ( 90 - 25 ) / sin( 90 - C)  = μ

sin65 / cos C = μ

sinC = 1.33 / μ  , where 1.33 is the refractive index of body liquid.

From these equations

sin65 / cos C = 1.33 / sinC

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TanC = 1.33 / .9063

TanC = 1.4675

C= 56°

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μ = 1.33 / sinC

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= 1.33 / .829

μ = 1.6   Ans

3 0
3 years ago
Can you explain why number 3 is correct?
lukranit [14]
No waves because Q19 waves would going at the surface at regions
7 0
2 years ago
What are two examples of goods and two examples of services
julsineya [31]

The goods and the services make up the basis of every economy. The goods can simply be defined as merchandise or possessions. The services can be defined as the actions through which help is provided, or work is done for someone else. Example of goods are the food and furniture, with the food being crucial for the survival of the people, while the furniture is an essential part of every home and its practicality and decor. Examples of services are teaching and car repairing. The teaching is crucial for the development of the societies, as through it the people get education, while the repairing of cars is very important as lot of people have them, can not afford to buy new ones all the time, and they need for their daily movement over longer distances.

8 0
3 years ago
One end of a thin rod is attached to a pivot, about which it can rotate without friction. Air resistance is absent. The rod has
Mars2501 [29]

Answer:

6.86 m/s

Explanation:

This problem can be solved by doing the total energy balance, i.e:

initial (KE + PE)  = final (KE + PE). { KE = Kinetic Energy and PE = Potential Energy}

Since the rod comes to a halt at the topmost position, the KE final is 0. Therefore, all the KE initial is changed to PE, i.e, ΔKE = ΔPE.

Now, at the initial position (the rod hanging vertically down), the bottom-most end is given a velocity of v0. The initial angular velocity(ω) of the rod is given by ω = v/r , where v is the velocity of a particle on the rod and r is the distance of this particle from the axis.

Now, taking v = v0 and r = length of the rod(L), we get ω = v0/ 0.8 rad/s

The rotational KE of the rod is given by KE = 0.5Iω², where I is the moment of inertia of the rod about the axis of rotation and this is given by I = 1/3mL², where L is the length of the rod. Therefore, KE = 1/2ω²1/3mL² = 1/6ω²mL². Also, ω = v0/L, hence KE = 1/6m(v0)²

This KE is equal to the change in PE of the rod. Since the rod is uniform, the center of mass of the rod is at its center and is therefore at a distane of L/2 from the axis of rotation in the downward direction and at the final position, it is at a distance of L/2 in the upward direction. Hence ΔPE = mgL/2 + mgL/2 = mgL. (g = 9.8 m/s²)

Now, 1/6m(v0)² = mgL ⇒ v0 = \sqrt{6gL}

Hence, v0 = 6.86 m/s

4 0
3 years ago
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Vlada [557]
(2^(1-γ)-1)/(1-γ) where γ is the heat capacity ratio, Cp/Cv. See attached image for the working.

http://prntscr.com/htqqte
5 0
3 years ago
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