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3 years ago

8

Why is upthrust directly proportinal to acceleration due to gravity

1 answer:

kati45 [8]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:The force of buoyancy equals density of liquid times acceleration due to gravity times volume of liquid replaced. So buoyancy is directly proportional to gravity, and you would float just as well in 5G as 1G. ... A simpler way to look at it is: you float because gravity attracts water more than it attracts your body.

Explanation: i dont know if this helps i hope it does have a nice day.

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garri49 [273]

Am not really sure but what i see is D

4 0

3 years ago

Who reported four “element” classifications, but included some substances that were combinations of elements rather than true el

notsponge [240]

Antoine-Laurent Lavoisier was the first person to report the four element classification system but also ended up including some compounds rather than elements.

7 0

3 years ago

A tennis ball is a hollow sphere with a thin wall. It is set rolling without slipping at 4.03 m/s on the horizontal section of a

seraphim [82]

Answer:

2.38 m/s, 4.31 m/s, lower

Explanation:

a)

Initial energy = final energy

½ m v₀² + ½ I ω₀² = mgh + ½ m v₁² + ½ I ω₁²

Since the ball is rolling without slipping, ω = v / r.

For a hollow sphere, I = ⅔ m r².

½ m v₀² + ½ (⅔ m r²) (v₀ / r)² = mgh + ½ m v₁² + ½ (⅔ m r²) (v₁ / r)²

½ m v₀² + ⅓ m v₀² = mgh + ½ m v₁² + ⅓ m v₁²

⅚ m v₀² = mgh + ⅚ m v₁²

⅚ v₀² = gh + ⅚ v₁²

v₀² = 1.2gh + v₁²

v₁ = √(v₀² − 1.2gh)

Given v₀ = 4.03 m/s, g = 9.80 m/s, h = 0.900 m:

v₁ = √((4.03)² − 1.2 (9.80) (0.900))

v₁ ≈ 2.38 m/s

At the top of the loop, the sum of the forces in the radial direction is:

∑F = ma

W + N = m v² / R

N = m v² / R - mg

N = m (v² / R - g)

Given v = 2.38 m/s, R = 0.450 m, and g = 9.80 m/s²:

N = m ((2.38)² / 0.450 - 9.80)

N = 2.77m

N ≥ 0, so the ball stays on the track.

b)

Initial energy = final energy

Borrowing from part a):

v₂ = √(v₀² − 1.2gh)

This time, h = -0.200 m:

v₂ = √((4.03)² − 1.2 (9.80) (-0.200))

v₂ ≈ 4.31 m/s

c)

Without the rotational energy:

½ m v₀² = mgh + ½ m v₁²

½ v₀² = gh + ½ v₁²

v₀² = 2gh + v₁²

v₁ = √(v₀² - 2gh)

This is less than v₁ we calculated earlier.

6 0

3 years ago

Glycerin (C3H8O3) is a nonvolatile liquid. What is the vapor pressure of a solution made by adding 154 g of glycerin to 316 mL o

garri49 [273]

Answer:

$P_{sol}=50.4\ mm.Hg$

Explanation:

According to given:

molecular mass of glycerin, $M_g=3\times 12+8+3\times 16=92\ g.mol^{-1}$

molecular mass of water, $M_w=2+16=18\ g.mol^{-1}$

∵Density of water is $0.992\ g.cm^{-3}= 0.992\ g.mL^{-1}$

∴mass of water in 316 mL, $m_w=316\times 0.992=313.5 g$

mass of glycerin, $m_g=154\ g$

pressure of mixture, $P_x=55.32\ torr= 55.32\ mm.Hg$

temperature of mixture, $T_x=40^{\circ}C$

<em>Upon the formation of solution the vapour pressure will be reduced since we have one component of solution as non-volatile.</em>

<u>moles of water in the given quantity:</u>

$n_w=\frac{m_w}{M_w}$

$n_w=\frac{313.5}{18}$

$n_w=17.42 moles$

<u>moles of glycerin in the given quantity:</u>

$n_g=\frac{m_g}{M_g}$

$n_g=\frac{154}{92}$

$n_g=1.674 moles$

<u>Now the mole fraction of water:</u>

$X_w=\frac{n_w}{n_w+n_g}$

$X_w=\frac{17.42}{17.42+1.674}$

$X_w=0.912$

<em>Since glycerin is non-volatile in nature so the vapor pressure of the resulting solution will be due to water only.</em>

$\therefore P_{sol}=X_w\times P_x$

$\therefore P_{sol}=0.912\times 55.32$

$P_{sol}=50.4\ mm.Hg$

7 0

3 years ago

In Milgram's experiment:

SpyIntel [72]

Answer:

B. The "Learner" was working with Milgram.

Explanation:

just took the test

give brainliest, please. :)

3 0

3 years ago