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jonny [76]
3 years ago
5

At December 31, Gill Co. reported accounts receivable of $238,000 and an allowance for uncollectible accounts of $600 (credit) b

efore any adjustments. An analysis of accounts receivable suggests that the allowance for uncollectible accounts should be 3% of accounts receivable. The amount of the adjustment for uncollectible accounts would be:
Business
1 answer:
Firlakuza [10]3 years ago
5 0

Answer: $7,740

Explanation:

Given, At December 31, Accounts receivable = $238,000

Allowance for uncollectible accounts = 3% of (accounts receivable)

∴ Allowance for uncollectible accounts = 3% of ($238,000 )

=$(0.03 ×238,000)                [3% = 0.03]

= $ (7140)

= $7,140

Allowance for uncollectible accounts (credit) before any adjustments= $600

The amount of the adjustment for uncollectible accounts = Allowance for uncollectible accounts +  $600

= $7,140 +  $600

= $7,740

Hence, The amount of the adjustment for uncollectible accounts would be: <u>$7,740.</u>

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A bank has written a call option on one stock and a put option on another stock. For the first option the stock price is 50, the
iris [78.8K]

Answer:

10-Day 99% VaR = 3.61

Explanation:

Data Given:

For First Option:

Stock Price = 50

Strike Price = 51

Volatility = 28% per annum

Time to maturity = 9 months

For Second Option:

Stock Price = 20

Strike Price = 19

Volatility = 25% per annum

Time to maturity = 12 months or 1 year

Risk Free Rate = 6% per annum

Correlation = 0.4

Find 10-day 99% VaR.

Solution:

First of all we need to refer the DerivaGem Model to dig out the change in price equation for both the options.

So, according to DerivaGem Model, We have following data:

For First Option:

Value  = -5.413

Delta Value = -0.589

For Second Option:

Value = -1.014

Delta = -0.284

Change in Price = (Delta value of First Option x Stock Price)Y1 + (Delta value of the second option x Stock Price)Y2

Change in Price = (-0.589 x 50)Y1 + (-0.284 x 20)Y2

So, We will get the Change in Price Linear Equation for both the options.

Change in Price = -29.45Y1 -5.68Y2

Now, we have to calculate the Daily Volatility Percentage.

Formula:

Daily Volatility Percentage = Volatility/ Square root of number of days active in annum

Number of Days Active = 252

Volatility for First Option = 28%

Volatility for Second Option = 25%

Daily Volatility Percentage for First Option = 28%/\sqrt{252}

Daily Volatility Percentage for First Option = 0.0176

Similarly,

Daily Volatility Percentage for Second Option = 25%/\sqrt{252}

Daily Volatility Percentage for Second Option = 0.0157

Now, utilizing the above calculated data, we can find the one-day variance of change in price.

1-Day Variance =(29.45^{2} *0.0176^{2}) + (5.68^{2} * 0.0157^{2}) - (2 * 29.45 * 0.0176 * 5.68 * 0.0157 * 0.4)

Solving the above equation:

We get:

1-Day Variance = 0.2396

Now, we have to find the standard deviation of 1-Day Variance:

SD of 1-Day Variance = \sqrt{0.2396}

SD of 1-Day Variance = 0.4895

So,

Now, in order to find the value of one day 99% VaR from the table, we have all the prerequisites.

So,

Value of One day 99% VaR from table = 2.33

But we need 10-Day 99% VaR.

So, number of days = 10

Hence,

10-Day 99% VaR = 0.4895 * 2.33 * \sqrt{10}

10-Day 99% VaR = 3.61

8 0
2 years ago
The shape of China's production possibilities frontier (PPF) should reflect the fact that as China produces more smartphones and
ArbitrLikvidat [17]

Answer:

Remain same

Explanation:

In this situation, China makes tablets and smartphones only. The equipment used to manufacture these two products is nearly the same, the same collection of tools is equally useful in manufacturing both smartphones and tablets. So there is the constant opportunity cost of both commodities.

Resources are similarly appropriate for the manufacturing of two varied goods at a constant opportunity cost.

Therefore, the opportunity costs for additional smartphone remains the same.

8 0
3 years ago
A class of stock for which there is no minimum legal capital is called?
Ann [662]
The answer would be D noncumulative stock.
6 0
3 years ago
Which of the following is an organizational factor that increases illegitimate political behavior?
Akimi4 [234]

Answer:

B) high trust zero-sum reward practice

Explanation:

Zero sum reward practices are generally not that successful since usually only a few are benefited while several people are left out of the benefits, or lose. If someone gains a benefit at the expense of others, it will always cause friction within the organization. That friction can lead to illegitimate political behavior, which is behavior that breaks implied rules. The regular "losers" in zero sum reward practices may be tempted to break the rules or cheat in order to obtain the benefits.

For example, if the same person is always selected as the employee of the month, his/her "losing" coworkers may start to sabotage his/her work.

4 0
3 years ago
AlwaysRain Irrigation, Inc., would place for making bronze and plastic sprinklers. Three types of sprinklers are available in bo
Alex777 [14]

Answer:

The requirement for the next four years higher than the current available capacity.

Explanation:

AlwaysRain Irrigation, Inc., has 3 bronze machines and one injection molding. The bronze machine total available capacity is 60,000 / year which is calculated by 20,000 sprinkles * 3 machines.

For molding machine the available capacity for the year is 320,000 sprinkles per year.

The capacity requirement for next four years will be greater for bronze and the company needs to consider buying more machines.

8 0
3 years ago
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