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zvonat [6]
3 years ago
15

What's m + 6/3 equals -8​

Mathematics
1 answer:
Tom [10]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

see below

Step-by-step explanation:

m+6/3 = -8

Simplify the fraction

m+2 = -8

Subtract 2

m+2-2 = -8-2

m = -10

or

(m+6)/3 = -8

Multiply each side by 3

m+6 = -8*3

m+6 = -24

Subtract 6

m+6-6 = -24-6

m = -30

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The temperature in Bloomington on Sunday was 32.6°C. On Monday, the temperature changed by -8.25°C. What was the temperature on
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. Suppose (as is roughly true) that 88% of college men and 82% of college women were employed last summer. A sample survey inter
denis23 [38]

Answer:

(a) The approximate distribution of the proportion pf of women who worked = 0.82, the standard distribution = 0.00738

The approximate distribution of the proportion pM of men who worked = 0.88, the standard distribution ≈ 0.01625

(b)  pM - pF =  0.06

While pF - pM = -0.06

The difference in the standard deviation ≈ 0.01025

(c) The probability that a higher proportion of women than men worked last year is 0

Step-by-step explanation:

(a) The given information are;

The percentage of college men that were employed last summer = 88%

The percentage of college women that were employed last summer = 82%

The number of college men interviewed in the survey = 400

The number of college women interviewed in the survey = 400

Therefore, given that the proportion of women that worked = 0.82, we have for the binomial distribution;

p = 0.82

q = 1 - 0.82 = 0.18

n = 400

Therefore;

p × n = 0.82 × 400 = 328 > 10

q × n = 0.18 × 400 = 72 > 10

Therefore, the binomial distribution is approximately normal

We have;

The \  mean = p = 0.82\\\\The \ standard \ deviation, \sigma  = \sqrt{ \dfrac{p \times q}{{n} } }= \sqrt{ \dfrac{0.82 \times 0.18}{{400} }} \approx  0.01921\\

Therefore, the approximate distribution of the proportion pf of women who worked = 0.82, the standard distribution ≈ 0.01921

Similarly, given that the proportion of male that worked = 0.88, we have for the binomial distribution;

p = 0.88

q = 1 - 0.88 = 0.12

n = 400

Therefore;

p × n = 0.88 × 400 = 352 > 10

q × n = 0.12 × 400 = 42 > 10

Therefore, the binomial distribution is approximately normal

We have;

The \  mean = p = 0.88\\\\The \ standard \ deviation, \sigma  = \sqrt{ \dfrac{p \times q}{{n} } }= \sqrt{ \dfrac{0.88 \times 0.12}{{400} }} \approx  0.01625\\

Therefore, the approximate distribution of the proportion pM of men who worked = 0.88, the standard distribution ≈ 0.01625

(b) Given two normal random variables, we have

The distribution of the difference the two normal random variable = A normal random variable

The mean of the difference = The difference of the two means = pM - pF = 0.88 - 0.82 = 0.06

While pF - pM = -0.06

The difference in the standard deviation, giving only the real values, is given as follows;

The \ difference \ in \ standard \ deviation  = \sqrt{ \dfrac{p_1 \times q_1}{{n_1} } -\dfrac{p_2 \times q_2}{{n_2} } }\\\\= \sqrt{\dfrac{0.82 \times 0.18}{{400} }-\dfrac{0.88 \times 0.12}{{400} }} \approx  0.01025\\

(c) When there is no difference between the the proportion of men and women that worked last summer, the probability that there is a difference = 0

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z = \dfrac{0 - (-0.06)}{0.01025}  \approx 5.86

Given that the maximum values for a cumulative distribution table is approximately 4, we have that the probability that a higher proportion of women than men worked last year is 0.

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