Answer:
1/14
Step-by-step explanation:
There is only 1 common multiple of 4 and 6 between 1 and 14.
So the probability is:
R = sqrt 3 * (V /( pi * h))
V = 62.8
pi = 3.14
h = 15
now we sub
R = sqrt 3 * (62.8 / (3.14 * 15)
R = sqrt 3 * (62.6 / 47.1)
R = sqrt 3 * 1.33
R = sqrt 3.99
R = 1.9 rounds to 2 inches <===
Answer:
B) 4x-5-3x=x+5 has no solution.
Step-by-step explanation:
A) 4x+4=4-4x
4x-(-4x)+4=4
4x+4x+4=4
8x+4=4
8x=4-4
8x=0
x=0/8
x=0
------------------
B) 4x-5-3x=x+5
4x-3x-5=x+5
x-5=x+5
x-x-5=5
-5=5
no solution.
------------------------
C) 4x+15-9x=5x+15
4x-9x+15=5x+15
-5x+15=5x+15
-5x-5x+15=15
-10x+15=15
-10x=15-15
-10x=0
x=0/-10
x=0
------------------------
D) 4x+2-x=4+3x-2
3x+2=3x+4-2
3x+2=3x+2
infinitely many solutions.
X=11 because 90-43+5x-8 so 5•11=55-8 =47 90-43=47
Answer:
D sqrt( A ) sqrt(pi) / pi = r
Step-by-step explanation:
The area of a circle is given by
A = pi r^2
To find r
Divide each side of the equation by pi
A / pi = pi r^2 /pi
A / pi = r^2
Take the square root of each side
sqrt(A / pi )= sqrt( r^2)
sqrt(A / pi )= r
We do not like leaving square roots in the denominator, so multiply by sqrt(pi)/sqrt(pi))
sqrt(A / pi ) *sqrt(pi)/sqrt(pi))
sqrt( A ) sqrt(pi) / pi = r
