Answer:
If opportunity cost is 5%, PV=10,366.05
If opportunity cost is 6.5%, PV=9,934.19
If opportunity cost is 11.5%, PV=8,656.79
Explanation:
PV=Σ![(\frac{CF_{t} }{(1+i)^{t} })](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%28%5Cfrac%7BCF_%7Bt%7D%20%7D%7B%281%2Bi%29%5E%7Bt%7D%20%7D%29)
If opportunity cost is 5%: PV =
=10,366.05
If opportunity cost is 6.5%: PV =
=9,934.19
If opportunity cost is 11.5%: PV =
=8,656.79
Answer: The parliament is likely to allocate £ 1,23,93,800.62
We arrive at the answer as follows:
Amount allocated by President Obama $100,000,000
Amount England wants to contribute 20% of President Obama's allocation
Amount England wants to contribute in USD =
Exchange Rate $1. 61371/1 pound sterling
We can read the problem as if $1.61371 is equal to 1 pound sterling, how many pound sterlings are equal to $2,00,00,000?
Let number of pound sterlings be x
So, ![\frac{1.61371}{1}= \frac{100000000}{x}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B1.61371%7D%7B1%7D%3D%20%5Cfrac%7B100000000%7D%7Bx%7D)
![x = \frac{100000000}{1.61731}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=x%20%3D%20%5Cfrac%7B100000000%7D%7B1.61731%7D)
![x = 1,23,93,800.62](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=x%20%3D%201%2C23%2C93%2C800.62)
Answer:
On February 1, a customer's account balance of $2,700 was deemed to be uncollectible.
The entry to be recorded on February 1 to record the write-off assuming the company uses the allowance method is:
Debit Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $2,700; credit Accounts Receivable $2,700.
Explanation:
Using the allowance method, every bad debt entry is first reflected in the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts before it is taken to the bad debt expense account.
The entries above reduce the Accounts Receivable account by the amount of the write-off and reduces the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts by the same amount. Any recovery of written off debt is also treated in the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts and the Accounts Receivable account in revised order. This method is unlike the direct write-off method. With the direct write-off method, the Accounts Receivable is credited with the amount of the write-off and the write-off is expensed in the Bad Debts Expense account directly.
Answer:
a single firm producing a product for which there are no close substitutes.
Explanation:
A pure monopoly is a single supplier having a market or industry i.e. defined. The firm should be considered as an industry also in this there is no competitor or any subsitution existed. It can be arise at the time when the market share of the one firm is more than 90%
So as per the given situation, the above represent the answer
When you get hired for a well-paying job, you will most likely view older used cars as<u> inferior goods.</u>
<h3><u /></h3><h3><u>What are inferior goods?</u></h3>
As consumer income rises, customer demand declines for a class of inferior goods. Low-cost alternatives to "normal products," or necessities like food and household supplies, are frequently found in inferior goods. For instance, when someone's wage is cut, they might buy cheaper, poorer things than they would otherwise. When their earnings increases again, they're more likely to buy regular things rather than cheap ones.
The word "inferior" refers to the product's price and perceived worth rather than its quality. The quality may occasionally be inferior to an equivalent standard good, but it may also occasionally be the same. In reality, there are occasions when the only distinctions between regular goods and equal substandard goods are the packaging and price of the goods.
Learn more about inferior goods with the help of the given link:
brainly.com/question/13377225?referrer=searchResults
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