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Rudik [331]
3 years ago
15

Consider two objects (Object 1 and Object 2) moving in the same direction on a frictionless surface. Object 1 moves with speed v

1=v and has inertia m1=2m. Object 2 moves with speed v2=2√v and has inertia m2=m. Part A Which object has the larger magnitude of its momentum? Which object has the larger magnitude of its momentum? Object 1 has the greater magnitude of its momentum. Object 2 has the greater magnitude of its momentum. Both objects have the same magnitude of their momenta. Part Part B Which object has the larger kinetic energy? Which object has the larger kinetic energy? Object 1 has the greater kinetic energy. Object 2 has the greater kinetic energy. The objects have the same kinetic energy.
Physics
1 answer:
Semenov [28]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

A)Object 1 has the greater magnitude of its momentum.

B)The objects 2 have the greater kinetic energy.

Explanation:

For object 1 :

v₁ = v  ,m₁ = 2 m

For object 2 :

v_2=2\sqrt{v} ,m₂=m

We know that linear momentum given as

P = M V

M=Mass , V=Velocity

For object 1 :

P₁ =m₁ v₁

P₁ =2 m v

For object 2

P_2=m_2v_2

P_2=2m\sqrt {v}

We can say that object 1 have more momentum.

The kinetic energy

KE_1=\dfrac{1}{2}m_1v_1^2

KE_1=\dfrac{1}{2}\times 2m\times v^2

KE_1=mv^2

KE_2=\dfrac{1}{2}m_2v_2

KE_2=\dfrac{1}{2}\times m\times 4v^2

KE_2=2mv^2

Therefore both the object 2 have higher kinetic energy.

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If you need 40.0 Nm of torque in order to loosen a nut on a wn
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0.301 m

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A motorist enters a freeway at 45 km/h and accelerates uniformly to 99 km/h. From the odometer in the car, the motorist knows th
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Answer:

a)  19440 km/h²

b) 10 sec

Explanation:

v₀ = initial velocity of the car = 45 km/h

v = final velocity achieved by the car = 99 km/h

d = distance traveled by the car while accelerating = 0.2 km

a = acceleration of the car

Using the kinematics equation

v² = v₀² + 2 a d

99² = 45² + 2 a (0.2)

a = 19440 km/h²

b)

t = time required to reach the final velocity

Using the kinematics equation

v = v₀ + a t

99 = 45 + (19440) t

t = 0.00278 h

t = 0.00278 x 3600 sec

t = 10 sec

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In what year did the Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) refuse to sell oil to the U.S. due to political differ
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A coffee filter of mass 1.2 grams dropped from a height of 1 m reaches the ground with a speed of 0.8 m/s. How much kinetic ener
iren [92.7K]

<u>Answer:</u> The energy gained by the air molecules is 0.011 J.

<u>Explanation:</u>

Law of conservation of energy states that energy can neither be created nor be destroyed but it can only be transformed from one form to another form.

Here, the potential energy of the coffee filter is getting converted into kinetic energy of the coffee filter and some energy is lost by it which is gained by the air molecules in the form of kinetic energy.

So, calculating the potential energy of coffee filter, we use the equation:

P = mgh

where,

m = mass of coffee filter = 1.2 g = 1.2\times 10^{-3}kg    (Conversion used: 1 kg = 1000 g)

g = acceleration due to gravity = 9.8m/s^2

h = height of coffee filter = 1 m

Putting values in above equation, we get:

P=1.2\times 10^{-3}kg\times 9.8m/s^2\times 1m\\\\P=1.176\times 10^{-2}J

  • Calculating the kinetic energy of coffee filter, we use the equation:

E=\frac{1}{2}mv^2

where,

m = mass of coffee filter = 1.2 g = 1.2\times 10^{-3}kg

v = speed of coffee filter = 0.8 m/s

Putting values in above equation, we get:

E=\frac{1}{2}\times 1.2\times 10^{-3}kg\times (0.8m/s)^2\\\\E=3.84\times 10^{-4}J

As, energy lost by coffee filter = energy gained by air molecules

So, energy lost by coffee filter = Potential energy - Kinetic energy

Energy lost by coffee filter = (1.176\times 10^{-2})-(3.84\times 10^{-4})=0.011J

Hence, the energy gained by the air molecules is 0.011 J.

5 0
3 years ago
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