Answer:
A. There is a localization of positive charge near the door handle.
Explanation:
- When on a cold morning a person wearing cotton/ polyester cloth walking on the carpet moves toward his car then due to friction between the feet and the carpet there are transfer of electrons from the carpet to our feet, and since our body is a good conductor of electricity the charges spread throughout on the surface of or body.
- When the person brings his hands close to the neutral conducting door of the car it gets induced with equal intensity of opposite charge to our hands thus having a concentration of positive charges near to the hand on the car's door is developed as a result of polarization within the conductor.
Since
Electric potential energy = qV
Where V = Ed
Hence
Electric potential energy = q(Ed) --- (1)
Since E = 1.0 * 10^3 N/C
d = 0.10 m
q = 4 * 10^-6 C
Plug in the values in (1)
(1) => Electric potential energy = 4 * 10^-6(1.0 * 10^3 * 0.10)
Electric potential energy = 400 μJ
Based on my personal experiences, I believe that there is a difference between areas in precision of control because there are different part of the brain that controls the functions of the body.
<h3>What is the difference between left-handed and right-handed people?</h3>
From the standpoint of brain lateralization, differences do exist such as based on experience such as handedness or specific skills such as playing a guitar.
Note that Left-handers are said to have reduced or little lateralized brains, which tells us that the two halves of the brain are little different than as seen in the right-handers.
Therefore, I can say that based on my personal experiences, I believe that there is a difference between areas in precision of control because there are different part of the brain that controls the functions of the body.
Learn more about brain from
brainly.com/question/1247675
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Answer:
Explanation:
Given a particle of mass
M = 1.7 × 10^-3 kg
Given a potential as a function of x
U(x) = -17 J Cos[x/0.35 m]
U(x) = -17 Cos(x/0.35)
Angular frequency at x = 0
Let find the force at x = 0
F = dU/dx
F = -17 × -Sin(x/0.35) / 0.35
F = 48.57 Sin(x/0.35)
At x = 0
Sin(0) =0
Then,
F = 0 N
So, from hooke's law
F = -kx
Then,
0 = -kx
This shows that k = 0
Then, angular frequency can be calculated using
ω = √(k/m)
So, since k = 0 at x = 0
Then,
ω = √0/m
ω = √0
ω = 0 rad/s
So, the angular frequency is 0 rad/s
Answer:
a I think hope this helps
