Answer:
The answer to your question is given below
Explanation:
From the question given above, we can see that the wave with a higher frequency has a shorter wavelength while that with a lower frequency has a longer wavelength. This is so because the frequency and wavelength of a wave has inverse relationship. This can further be explained by using the following formula:
Velocity = wavelength x frequency
Divide both side by wavelength
Frequency = Velocity /wavelength
Keeping the velocity constant, we have:
Frequency ∝ 1 / wavelength
From the above illustration, we can see clearly that the frequency and wavelength are in inverse relationship. This implies that the higher the frequency, the shorter the wavelength and the shorter the frequency, the higher the wavelength.
Answer:
* most of the emission would be in the infrared part, the visible radiation would be very small.
*total intensity of the semition decreases that the intensity depends on the fourth power of the temperature
Explanation:
The radiation emitted by the Sun is approximately the radiation of a black body, if the Sun were to cool, the maximum emission wavelength changes
λ T = 2,898 10⁻³
λ = 2,898 10⁻³ / T
if the temperature decreases the maximum wavelength the greater values are moved, that is to say towards the infrared. Therefore the emission curve also moves, in this case most of the emission would be in the infrared part, the visible radiation would be very small.
Furthermore, the total intensity of the semition decreases that the intensity depends on the fourth power of the temperature according to Stefan's law
P = σ A eT⁴
Answer:
When the doctor has the syringe, it is full of air. So, now after the doctor pushes the plunger, hence the air gets released into the medicine container. After this the doctor then takes the plunger and pull it back. Now , the air gets pulled up back into the syringe, but not only does the air come in but also the medicine because of the pressure build up.
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True it’s true because in the book it said all that stuff
1. 
Explanation:
We have:
voltage in the primary coil
voltage in the secondary coil
The efficiency of the transformer is 100%: this means that the power in the primary coil and in the secondary coil are equal

where I1 and I2 are the currents in the two coils. Re-arranging the equation, we find

which means that the current in the secondary coil is 14% of the value of the current in the primary coil.
2. 5.7 V
We can solve the problem by using the transformer equation:

where:
Np = 400 is the number of turns in the primary coil
Ns = 19 is the number of turns in the secondary coil
Vp = 120 V is the voltage in the primary coil
Vs = ? is the voltage in the secondary coil
Re-arranging the formula and substituting the numbers, we find:
