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3241004551 [841]
3 years ago
10

Describe the relationship between the direction of the velocity vector and the direction of the acceleration for a body moving i

n a circle at constant speed.
Physics
1 answer:
gavmur [86]3 years ago
3 0
Velocity is a vector and has a direction. The direction of an object's velocity is always in the same direction that the object is moving. For an object moving in a circle at constant speed, the velocity vector is always directed in a direction which is tangent to the circle.
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mina [271]
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4 years ago
You have a grindstone (a disk) that is 95.2 kg, has a 0.399 m radius, and is turning at 93 rpm, and you press a steel axe agains
olya-2409 [2.1K]

Answer:

angular acceleration is -0.2063  rad/s²

Explanation:

Given data

mass m = 95.2 kg

radius r = 0.399 m

turning ω = 93 rpm

radial force N  = 19.6 N

kinetic coefficient of friction  μ = 0.2

to find out

angular acceleration

solution

we know frictional force that is = radial force × kinetic coefficient of friction

frictional force = 19.6 × 0.2

frictional force = 3.92 N

and

we know moment of inertia  that is

γ =  I ×α = frictional force × r

so

γ  = 1/2 mr²α

α  = -2f /mr

α  = -2(3.92) /95.2 (0.399)

α  = - 7.84 / 37.9848 = -0.2063

so angular acceleration is -0.2063  rad/s²

3 0
3 years ago
In which of these examples is the greatest movement occurring?
vlada-n [284]
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7 0
3 years ago
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create a formula giving the strength of the induced field (B) i terms of current (I) and the distance from the wire to the probe
iren [92.7K]
So we need to find the formula for magnetic field B using the current (I) and the distance from the probe (d). So, We know that the stronger the current I, the stronger the magnetic field B. That tells us that the I and B are proportional. Also we know that the strength of the magnetic field B is weaker as the distance d of the probe increases. That tells us that B and d are inversely proportional. So our formula should have B=(I/d)*c where c is a constant of proportionality. c=μ₀/2π where μ₀ is the permeability of free space. So finally our formula is B=(μ₀I)/(2πd). 
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3 years ago
An 80-cm uniform 10-kg bar is resting on two scales, one at either end. A smaller 4-kg mass (m) is placed at a distance of d = 2
Varvara68 [4.7K]

Answer

given,

length of bar = 80 cm

mass of the bar = 10 kg

smaller mass = 4 kg

distance = 20 cm

s_1 + s_2 = 10 + 4

s_1 + s_2 = 14\ kg

taking moment about B

s_1 \times 0.8 - 10 \times 0.4 - 4 \times 0.6 = 0

s_1 \times 0.8 = 6.4

s_1 = 8\ N

s_2 = 14 - s_1

s_2 = 14 - 8

s_2 = 6 N

difference between two scale = 8 - 6

                                                  = 2 N

7 0
3 years ago
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