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vovikov84 [41]
3 years ago
15

Light____.

Physics
2 answers:
ycow [4]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

b

Explanation:

light does not need a medium

it is refracted

Light is made up of little packets of energy called photons.

electromagnetic waves

Darya [45]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

b

Explanation:

trust me :)

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In principle, when you fire a rifle, the recoil should push you backward. How big a push will it give? Let's find out by doing a
MaRussiya [10]

Answer:

v= \frac{10\times10^{-3} V}{70} m/s

Explanation:

Assumption: bullet leaves the muzzle at a speed of V m/s

and velocity of push received by the man be v m/s

According to newton's third law to every action there is always an equal and opposite reaction.

therefore,

mass of man× velocity = mass of bullet×its velocity

⇒70×v= 10×10^-3 ×V

solving the above eqaution we get

therefore v= \frac{10\times10^{-3} V}{70} m/s

7 0
4 years ago
A scientific law seeks to explain why an event occurred. True or false
Nostrana [21]
The answer would be A) True.
8 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The electric field in a region of space increases from 0 to 2150 N/C in 5.00 s. What is the magnitude of the induced magnetic fi
Feliz [49]

To solve this problem we will use the Ampere-Maxwell law, which   describes the magnetic fields that result from a transmitter wire or loop in electromagnetic surveys. According to Ampere-Maxwell law:

\oint \vec{B}\vec{dl} = \mu_0 \epsilon_0 \frac{d\Phi_E}{dt}

Where,

B= Magnetic Field

l = length

\mu_0 = Vacuum permeability

\epsilon_0 = Vacuum permittivity

Since the change in length (dl) by which the magnetic field moves is equivalent to the perimeter of the circumference and that the electric flow is the rate of change of the electric field by the area, we have to

B(2\pi r) = \mu_0 \epsilon_0 \frac{d(EA)}{dt}

Recall that the speed of light is equivalent to

c^2 = \frac{1}{\mu_0 \epsilon_0}

Then replacing,

B(2\pi r) = \frac{1}{C^2} (\pi r^2) \frac{d(E)}{dt}

B = \frac{r}{2C^2} \frac{dE}{dt}

Our values are given as

dE = 2150N/C

dt = 5s

C = 3*10^8m/s

D = 0.440m \rightarrow r = 0.220m

Replacing we have,

B = \frac{r}{2C^2} \frac{dE}{dt}

B = \frac{0.220}{2(3*10^8)^2} \frac{2150}{5}

B =5.25*10^{-16}T

Therefore the magnetic field around this circular area is B =5.25*10^{-16}T

3 0
3 years ago
The mean distance of an asteroid from the Sun is 2.98 times that of Earth from the Sun. From Kepler's law of periods, calculate
lutik1710 [3]

Answer:

The asteroid requires 5.14 years to make one revolution around the Sun.

Explanation:

Kepler's third law establishes that the square of the period of a planet will be proportional to the cube of the semi-major axis of its orbit:

T^{2} = a^{3} (1)

Where T is the period of revolution and a is the semi-major axis.

In the other hand, the distance between the Earth and the Sun has a value of 1.50x10^{8} Km. That value can be known as well as an astronomical unit (1AU).

But 1 year is equivalent to 1 AU according with Kepler's third law, since 1 year is the orbital period of the Earth.

For the special case of the asteroid the distance will be:

a = 2.98(1.50x10^{8}Km)

a = 4.47x10^{8}Km

That distance will be expressed in terms of astronomical units:

4.47x10^{8}Km.\frac{1AU}{1.50x10^{8}Km} ⇒ 2.98AU

Finally, from equation 1 the period T can be isolated:

T = \sqrt{a^{3}}

T = \sqrt{(2.98)^{3}}  

T = \sqrt{26.463592}

T = 5.14AU

Then, the period can be expressed in years:

5.14AU.\frac{1yr}{1AU} ⇒ 5.14 yr

T = 5.14 yr

Hence, the asteroid requires 5.14 years to make one revolution around the Sun.

8 0
3 years ago
The Bob of a simple pendulum takes 0.25s to swing from its equilibrium position to one extreme. calculate it's period​
mario62 [17]

Hence the period is 1 sec.

<u>Explanation</u>:

  • If the time taken by a single pendulum is 0.25 seconds. Then a pendulum will move to two extreme positions from one mean position only. That will means that the total time period is given by

                             T = 2 \times 0.25 = 0.50 seconds.

  • A pendulum will oscillate from mean to the extreme, then extreme to mean, then mean to the extreme and again extreme to mean, so it will cover 2 cycles.

                                   Hence, 2 \times 0.50 = 1.

 

6 0
4 years ago
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