Answer:
-9.3
Step-by-step explanation:
Google
Answer:
(
−
2
,
4
)
Step-by-step explanation:
There were no graphs listed in your question. So...
Convert the inequality to interval notation.
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Splitting up the interval of integration into 
subintervals gives the partition
![\left[0,\dfrac1n\right],\left[\dfrac1n,\dfrac2n\right],\ldots,\left[\dfrac{n-1}n,1\right]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cleft%5B0%2C%5Cdfrac1n%5Cright%5D%2C%5Cleft%5B%5Cdfrac1n%2C%5Cdfrac2n%5Cright%5D%2C%5Cldots%2C%5Cleft%5B%5Cdfrac%7Bn-1%7Dn%2C1%5Cright%5D)
Each subinterval has length 
. The right endpoints of each subinterval follow the sequence
with 
. Then the left-endpoint Riemann sum that approximates the definite integral is
and taking the limit as 
gives the area exactly. We have
Given: <span>f(x) = log3 (x + 1), look for f^-1 (2)
We are looking for the inverse of a function. The inverse of the function can be obtained by switching the variables and obtaining the values of the new function, before substituting f(2). Using a calculator:
</span><span>f^-1 (2) = 8</span>
