<u>Answer:</u>
The correct answer option is: infinitely many solutions.
<u>Step-by-step explanation:</u>
We are given the following system of equations:
--- (1)
--- (2)
Dividing equation (2) by 2 to get:
--- (3)
As the equation (3) is same as the equation (1), therefore the system will have infinitely many solutions.
Answer:
Actually 11:16 is the answer
Step-by-step explanation:
we have to divide both terms by 1. because there is no other number that can go into 11
11 ÷ 1 = 11
16 ÷ 1 = 16
Since GCF = 1 we cannot reduce the ratio any further so:
11 : 16 = 11 : 16
The Pythagorean theorem a²+b²=c²
16²+18²=c²
256+324 = 580
√580
24=4x-6
(add six both sides)
30=4x
(divide 4 both sides.)
7.5=x (roughly)
IF SOMEONE PUTS A LINK AS AN ANSWER,DONT GO TO THE LINKS. PEOPLE USE THEM TO FIND YOUR ADDRESS
Answer:
2
Step-by-step explanation:
The coefficient is the number attached to the variable, which in this case is 2.
