Answer:
A.
Dr Vacation pay expenses $40,000
Cr Vacation pay payable $40,000
B.
Dr Pension expenses $222,750
Cr Cash $185,000
Cr Unfunded pension liability $37,750
Explanation:
Regling Company Journal entries
A.
Dr Vacation pay expenses $40,000
Cr Vacation pay payable $40,000
B.
Dr Pension expenses $222,750
Cr Cash $185,000
Cr Unfunded Pension liability $37,750
If the date of the appointment has been rescheduled, it's only logical not to show up on the day it was moved. Go to the appointment next week.
Answer:
<em>Purchasing power parity (PPP): </em>The principle suggests that if the purchasing powers are the same in two different countries, their exchange rates would be in equilibrium.
<em>Happening:</em> When inflation occurs in the US and it occurs more rapidly than in other nations, the currency, the dollar, will be less attractive to other nations. This means that the dollar's exchange rate with the currency of another nation will increase.
Explanation:
Suppose the rate of exchange between pound and dollar is 1 pound= 1.5 dollar before inflation. When inflation happens it may be 1 pound= 2 dollars.
If it has greater buying power, the currency will be demanded more. The US dollar was more requested before inflation, as 1 pound is spent on buying just $1.5. When inflation occurs, the dollar's buying power goes down and it gets less needed. 1 pound is already being spent on that time but to buy more dollars, 2 dollars.
I would suggest her to opt for scholarship programs that are offered by several colleges, there is a need based scholarship programs too.
The proportion of the optimal risky portfolio that should be invested in stock A is 0%.
Using this formula
Stock A optimal risky portfolio=[(Wa-RFR )×SDB²]-[(Wb-RFR)×SDA×SDB×CC] ÷ [(Wa-RFR )×SDB²+(Wb-RFR)SDA²]- [(Wa-RFR +Wb-RFR )×SDA×SDB×CC]
Where:
Stock A Expected Return (Wa) =16%
Stock A Standard Deviation (SDA)= 18.0%
Stock B Expected Return (Wb)= 12%
Stock B Standard Deviation(SDB) = 3%
Correlation Coefficient for Stock A and B (CC) = 0.50
Risk Free rate of return(RFR) = 10%
Let plug in the formula
Stock A optimal risky portfolio=[(.16-.10)×.03²]-[(.12-.10)×.18×.03×0.50]÷ [(.16-.10 )×.03²+(.12-.10)×.18²]- [(.16-.10 +.12-.10 )×.18×.03×0.50]
Stock A optimal risky portfolio=(0.000054-0.000054)÷(0.000702-0.000216)
Stock A optimal risky portfolio=0÷0.000486×100%
Stock A optimal risky portfolio=0%
Inconclusion the proportion of the optimal risky portfolio that should be invested in stock A is 0%.
Learn more here:
brainly.com/question/21273560
