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kirill115 [55]
3 years ago
10

Blue Company purchased 60 percent ownership of Kelly Corporation in 20X1. On May 10, 20X2, Kelly purchased inventory from Blue f

or $60,000. Kelly sold all of the inventory to an unaffiliated company for $86,000 on November 10, 20X2. Blue produced the inventory sold to Kelly for $47,000. The companies had no other transactions during 20X2.
1. What amount of sales will be reported in the 20X2 consolidated income statement?
a. $51,600
b. $60,000
c. $86,000
d. $146,000
2. What amount of cost of goods sold will be reported in the 20X2 consolidated income statement?
a. $36,000
b. $47,000
c. $60,000
d. $107,000
3. What amount will be reported as consolidated net income for 20X2?
a. $13,000
b. $26,000
c. $28,600
d. $39,000
Business
1 answer:
aleksandr82 [10.1K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Blue Company

Consolidation of Parent & Subsidiary Companies :

1. c. $86,000

2. b. $47,000

3. d. $39,000

Explanation:

In preparing a consolidated income statement, Blue Company with controlling interest of 60% will eliminate intercompany transactions, sales, purchases, inventory, and profits.  This is because such transactions are assumed to be within the same consolidated entity.

Only such transactions involving outsiders are taken into consideration for the purpose of determining profits and arriving at the financial position of the consolidated group.

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PilotLPTM [1.2K]

Answer: $25,369.50

Explanation:

GIVEN THE FOLLOWING :

Purchased direct material = $97,000

(2) Incurred labor costs as follows: (a) direct, $58,000 and (b) indirect, $15,600.

(3) Other manufacturing overhead was $109,000, excluding indirect labor.

(4) Transferred 80% of the materials to the manufacturing assembly line.

(5) Completed 65% of the Work-in-Process during the year.

(6) Sold 85% of the completed goods.

(7) There were no beginning inventories.

Ending work in process inventory is calculated by;

(Beginning inventory + 0.8(direct material purchased) + direct Labor + (indirect labor + other manufacturing overhead)) × percentage Work in process

($0 + (0.8×97000) + 58000 + (15600+109000))×0.65

=($0 + $77,600 + $58,000 + 124600)×0.65 = $169,130

Ending WIP Inventory = (100-85)% × $169,130

0.15 × $169,130 = $25,369.50

6 0
3 years ago
Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. Because of tax effects, an increase in the risk-free rate will have a greater e
Anastaziya [24]

Answer: I found the complete Question: Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

a. Because of tax effects, an increase in the risk-free rate will have a greater effect on  the after-tax cost of debt than on the cost of common stock as measured by the  CAPM.

b. If a company's beta increases, this will increase the cost of equity used to calculate  the WACC, but only if the company does not have enough reinvested earnings to  take care of its equity financing and hence must issue new stock.

c. When calculating the cost of preferred stock, companies must adjust for taxes,  because dividends paid on preferred stock are deductible by the paying  corporation.

d. Higher flotation costs reduce investors' expected returns, and that leads to a  reduction in a company's WACC.

e. When calculating the cost of debt, a company needs to adjust for taxes, because  interest payments are deductible by the paying corporation.

And the correct answer is "e. When calculating the cost of debt, a company needs to adjust for taxes, because  interest payments are deductible by the paying corporation.".

When calculating the cost of debt issuance, the company, in addition to taking into account the issuance costs, must calculate the cost adjusted for taxes because interest payments are deductible for debt issuing companies.

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4 years ago
The managers of fazer technologies inc. created a report of the profits earned and the losses incurred by the company over the l
Slav-nsk [51]

Analytical Report is the answer buddy

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3 years ago
Comparative advantage is Question 13 options: the ability to produce all goods at lower costs than anyone else can. the ability
svet-max [94.6K]

Answer: the ability to produce a good at a lower opportunity cost than other producers

Explanation: In other to clearly understand or grasp the definition or meaning of comparative advantage, the term opportunity cost should be understood. Opportunity cost simply means the benefit which one forfeits or losses when one chooses a certain option over the other. Comparative advantage is possessed by a certain seller or economy who is capable of selling his goods at a lower opportunity cost than its competitors. Thus, the comparative advantages weighs the size or amount of benefit forfeited or lost by sellers as a result of selling at a lower price. Thus the lower the opportunity cost, the better the comparative advantage.

4 0
3 years ago
A property that produces a first year NOI of $80,000 is purchased for $750,000. The NOI is expected stay constant through year 5
PIT_PIT [208]

Answer: $115998

Explanation:

Based on the information given, we can calculate the NOI from the 6th year which will be:

= $80,000 × (100% + 15%)

= $80,000 × 115%

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= $92,000

Therefore, the net present value of the property based on the 10-year holding period and a discount rate of 9.5% will be:

= 80000(PVAF, 5 year) + 92000[PVAF,(10-5),9.5%] + 830000/(1.095)10-750000

= (80000 × 3.839) + (92000 × 2.439) + (830000 × 0.403) - 750000

= 307120 + 224388 + 334490 - 750000

= 865998 - 750000

= $115998

Therefore, the net present value is $115998

4 0
3 years ago
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