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3 years ago

Can anyone help me on this?

Mathematics

2 answers:

Alinara [238K]3 years ago

7 0

27 i think im not sure i used to know this but idk

marusya05 [52]3 years ago

5 0

I got that r, the regular price of the monthly fee is 62.
So first I started with the equation;
$392.50 = 10( \frac{1}{2} r+ 8.25)$
then I divided both sides by 10 which then gave me;
$39.25 = \frac{1}{2} r + 8.25$
after that, I subtracted 8.25 from both sides;
$31 = \frac{1}{2} r$
then I multiplied by 2 to get R alone and that's how I got 62

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Choose the fraction that is greater than 3/18٫is less than 50/100٫and has 9 as its denominator

erik [133]

Answer:

4/9

Step-by-step explanation:

The denominator is the bottom value of a fraction, therefore we can discount 9/2

1/9 = 2/18. 2/18 is smaller than 3/18 so we can discount 1/9

50/100 = 0.5
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0.55555... is greatest than 0.5, therefore we can discount 5/9

Answer is 4/9

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1 year ago

nventing is a difficult way to make money. Only 5% of new patents earn a substantial profit. A certain city has just had30 indep

Arlecino [84]

Answer:

$P(X \geq 2) = 1-P(X$

And we can find the individual probabilities using the probability mass function and we got:

$P(X=0) = (30C0) (0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{30-0} =0.2146$

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And replacing we got:

$P(X \geq 2) = 1-P(X$

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

$X \sim Binom(n=30, p=0.05)$

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

Solution to the problem

For this case we want this probability:

$P(X \geq 2)$

And we can use the complement rule and we got:

$P(X \geq 2) = 1-P(X$

And we can find the individual probabilities using the probability mass function and we got:

$P(X=0) = (30C0) (0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{30-0} =0.2146$

$P(X=1) = (30C1) (0.05)^1 (1-0.05)^{30-1} = 0.3389$

And replacing we got:

$P(X \geq 2) = 1-P(X$

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2 years ago

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Serhud [2]

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