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dybincka [34]
3 years ago
14

Item 16 Explain why a change from 20 to 40 is a 100% increase, but a change from 40 to 20 is a 50% decrease. Increasing 20 to 40

is the same as increasing 20 by . So, it is a 100% increase. Decreasing 40 to 20
Mathematics
1 answer:
MAXImum [283]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Increasing 20 to 40 is the same as increasing 20 by 20 (or itself), so it is a 100% increase. Decreasing 40 to 20 is the same as decreasing 40 by 1/2 or by 20. So it is a 50% increase.

Step-by-step explanation:

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Let the maximum number of pages Jennifer can have be = x

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Given equation is :

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Price is given = 62.10 , so equation is :

62.10=(20+0.5x)+0.15(20+0.5x)

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When would you use herons formula in the real world?
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4 years ago
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Law Incorporation [45]

Answer:

the answer is 4.1

Step-by-step explanation:

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4 0
3 years ago
Giving brainiest pls help
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7 0
2 years ago
The problem involves a conversion from feet to miles. How many feet are in one mile? Use the Internet or another resource if you
Ghella [55]

The value of the 1 mile is equal to 5280 feet

We have given that,

The problem involves a conversion from feet to miles.

We have to determine how many feet are in one mile.

<h3>What is the conversion form?</h3>

Conversion of units is the conversion between different units of measurement for the same quantity, typically through multiplicative conversion factors.

1 mile is equal to 5280 feet

Therefore we get,

1mile=5280 feet.

To learn more about the conversion visit:

brainly.com/question/23718955

#SPJ1

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2 years ago
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