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Bogdan [553]
3 years ago
7

Are the fractions 1/5 , 5/5 , and 5/1 equivalent?Explain.

Mathematics
2 answers:
Debora [2.8K]3 years ago
7 0
No, these equations are not equivalent. 

1/5, or one fifth, is part of a whole. Imagine you have a pie, cut into five pieces, and your friend comes over and eats four pieces, so now you have one of the five original pieces. That's what you have here. 

5/5, or five fifths, is a whole. any number divided by itself is automatically one, so it is like making another pie and cutting it into five pieces, only this time no one eats any of it because it's burned or something. At the end, you have five pieces of pie

5/1 is actually just another way of writing plain old 5. To keep the pie example rolling, you have five pies, and no one eats any of these either, so they are all yours. You have 5 pies divided between one person, so at the end of the day you have 5 whole pies. 

Hope that helped!
rodikova [14]3 years ago
4 0
No because 1/5 is 20% and 5/5 is 100% also 5/1 is 5= 5/5 =1=100%
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3 years ago
The number of tickets purchased by an individual for Beckham College's holiday music festival is a uniformly distributed random
Zanzabum

1) Mean: 6.5

2) Standard deviation: 3.2

Step-by-step explanation:

1)

A uniform random distribution is the distribution of a variable that can assume n different values, and each of these values is equally likely to occur.

This means that the probability of occurring of each of these values is the same:

p(x_1)=p(x_2)=...=p(x_n)

For a uniform random distribution, the mean of the distribution is simply equal to the median value of the distribution, which is exactly at the center of the distribution itself. It can be calculated as

\bar x = \frac{1}{2}(a+b)

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a is the lowest value of the distribution

b is the highest value of the distribution

Here the distribution consists of all values ranging from 1 to 12, so:

a = 1

b = 12

Therefore the mean value is

\bar x=\frac{1}{2}(1+12)=6.5

2)

For a uniform random distribution, it can be dimostrated that the variance of the distribution is

\sigma^2 = \frac{1}{12}(b-a)^2

For the distribution in this problem, we have:

a = 1

b = 12

Therefore the variance is

\sigma^2 = \frac{1}{12}(12-1)^2=10.08

The standard deviation is the square root of the variance, therefore for this distribution it is:

\sqrt{\sigma^2}=\sqrt{10.08}=3.2

Learn more about mean and standard deviation:

brainly.com/question/6073431

brainly.com/question/8799684

brainly.com/question/4625002

#LearnwithBrainly

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