In 16 times
KE= o.5 m times V squared
The answer to this question would be:3850ft
To answer this question, you need to convert the speed velocity from miles/hour into feet/second. The equation would be: 750 miles/hour x 5280 foot/mile x 1 hour/3600second = 1100 ft/s
Then multiply the time with the velocity= 3.5 second x 1100 ft/s= 3850ft
Water and baking soda can be used, too.
Answer:
I /
= 1.48
, The correct answer is d
Explanation:
the moment of inertia is given by
I = ∫ r² dm
For figures with symmetry it is tabulated. In the case of a thin variation, the moment of inertia with respect to its center of mass is
= 1/12 M L2
There is a widely used theorem, which is the parallel axis theorem, where the moment of inertia of any parallel axis, is the moment of mass inertia plus the moment of inertia of the body taken as a particle
I =
+ M D²
Let's put these expressions to our case.
As the bar is one meter long its center of mass that this Enel midpoint corresponds to
= 1/12 m L²
= 1/12 m 1.00²
= 8.33 10⁻² m
Let's use the parallel axes theorem for the axis that passes through x = 30 cm. The distance from the enrode masses to the axis is
D =
- 0.30
D = 0.50 - 0.30 = 0.20 m
I =
+ m D²
I = 8.33 10⁻² m + m 0.2²
I = (8.33 10⁻² + 4 10⁻²) m
I = 12.33 10⁻² m
The relationship between these two moments of inertia
I /
= 12.333 10⁻² / 8.333 10⁻²
I /
= 1.48
The correct answer is d