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Olenka [21]
3 years ago
14

A pipeline (NPS = 14 in; schedule = 80) has a length of 200 m. Water (15℃) is flowing at 0.16 m3/s. What is the pipe head loss f

or the water supply over a distance of 200 m? Hint: Use an iterative approach for the empirical equation.
Engineering
1 answer:
dangina [55]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Head loss is 1.64

Explanation:

Given data:

Length (L) = 200 m

Discharge (Q) = 0.16 m3/s

According to table of nominal pipe size , for schedule 80 , NPS 14,  pipe has diameter (D)= 12.5 in or 31.8 cm 0.318 m

We know, head\ loss  = \frac{f L V^2}{( 2 g D)}

where, f = Darcy friction factor

V = flow velocity

g = acceleration due to gravity

We know, flow rate Q = A x V

solving for V

V = \frac{Q}{A}

    = \frac{0.16}{\frac{\pi}{4} (0.318)^2} = 2.015 m/s

obtained Darcy friction factor  

calculate Reynold number (Re) ,

Re = \frac{\rho V D}{\mu}

where,\rho = density of water

\mu = Dynamic viscosity of water at 15 degree  C = 0.001 Ns/m2

so reynold number is

Re = \frac{1000\times 2.015\times 0.318}{0.001}

            = 6.4 x 10^5

For Schedule 80 PVC pipes , roughness (e) is  0.0015 mm

Relative roughness (e/D) = 0.0015 / 318 = 0.00005

from Moody diagram, for Re = 640000 and e/D = 0.00005 , Darcy friction factor , f = 0.0126

Therefore head loss is

HL = \frac{0.0126 (200)(2.015)^2}{( 2 \times 9.81 \times 0.318)}

HL = 1.64 m

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A mass weighing 22 lb stretches a spring 4.5 in. The mass is also attached to a damper with Y coefficient . Determine the value
Dominik [7]

Answer:

Cc= 12.7 lb.sec/ft

Explanation:

Given that

m = 22 lb

g= 32 ft/s²

m = \dfrac{22}{32}=0.6875\ s^2/ft

x= 4.5 in

1 in = 0.083 ft

x= 0.375 ft

Spring constant ,K

K=\dfrac{m}{x}=\dfrac{22}{0.375}

K= 58.66  lb/ft

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C_c=2\sqrt{mK}

C_c=2\sqrt{0.6875\times 58.66}

Cc= 12.7 lb.sec/ft

5 0
3 years ago
A structural component in the shape of a flat plate 25.0 mm thick is to be fabricated from a metal alloy for which the yield str
balandron [24]

Answer:

The critical length of surface flaw = 6.176 mm

Explanation:

Given data-

Plane strain fracture toughness Kc = 29.6 MPa-m1/2

Yield Strength = 545 MPa

Design stress. =0.3 × yield strength

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Dimensionless parameter. Y = 1.3

The critical length of surface flaw is given by

= 1/pi.(Plane strain fracture toughness /Dimensionless parameter× Design Stress)^2

Now putting values in above equation we get,

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Air modeled as an ideal gas enters a turbine operating at steady state at 1040 K, 278 kPa and exits at 120 kPa. The mass flow ra
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Answer:

a) T_{2}=837.2K

b) e=91.3 %

Explanation:

A) First, let's write the energy balance:

W=m*(h_{2}-h_{1})\\W=m*Cp*(T_{2}-T_{1})  (The enthalpy of an ideal gas is just function of the temperature, not the pressure).

The Cp of air is: 1.004 \frac{kJ}{kgK} And its specific R constant is 0.287 \frac{kJ}{kgK}.

The only unknown from the energy balance is T_{2}, so it is possible to calculate it. The power must be negative because the work is done by the fluid, so the energy is going out from it.

T_{2}=T_{1}+\frac{W}{mCp}=1040K-\frac{1120kW}{5.5\frac{kg}{s}*1.004\frac{kJ}{kgk}} \\T_{2}=837.2K

B) The isentropic efficiency (e) is defined as:

e=\frac{h_{2}-h_{1}}{h_{2s}-h_{1}}

Where {h_{2s} is the isentropic enthalpy at the exit of the turbine for the isentropic process. The only missing in the last equation is that variable, because h_{2}-h_{1} can be obtained from the energy balance  \frac{W}{m}=h_{2}-h_{1}

h_{2}-h_{1}=\frac{-1120kW}{5.5\frac{kg}{s}}=-203.64\frac{kJ}{kg}

An entropy change for an ideal gas with  constant Cp is given by:

s_{2}-s_{1}=Cpln(\frac{T_{2}}{T_{1}})-Rln(\frac{P_{2}}{P_{1}})

You can review its deduction on van Wylen 6 Edition, section 8.10.

For the isentropic process the equation is:

0=Cpln(\frac{T_{2}}{T_{1}})-Rln(\frac{P_{2}}{P_{1}})\\Rln(\frac{P_{2}}{P_{1}})=Cpln(\frac{T_{2}}{T_{1}})

Applying logarithm properties:

ln((\frac{P_{2}}{P_{1}})^{R} )=ln((\frac{T_{2}}{T_{1}})^{Cp} )\\(\frac{P_{2}}{P_{1}})^{R}=(\frac{T_{2}}{T_{1}})^{Cp}\\(\frac{P_{2}}{P_{1}})^{R/Cp}=(\frac{T_{2}}{T_{1}})\\T_{2}=T_{1}(\frac{P_{2}}{P_{1}})^{R/Cp}

Then,

T_{2}=1040K(\frac{120kPa}{278kPa})^{0.287/1.004}=817.96K

So, now it is possible to calculate h_{2s}-h_{1}:

h_{2s}-h_{1}}=Cp(T_{2s}-T_{1}})=1.004\frac{kJ}{kgK}*(817.96K-1040K)=-222.92\frac{kJ}{kg}

Finally, the efficiency can be calculated:

e=\frac{h_{2}-h_{1}}{h_{2s}-h_{1}}=\frac{-203.64\frac{kJ}{kg}}{-222.92\frac{kJ}{kg}}\\e=0.913=91.3 %

4 0
3 years ago
Refrigerant-134a at 400 psia has a specific volume of 0.1144 ft3/lbm. Determine the temperature of the refrigerant based on (a)
vekshin1

Answer:

a) Using Ideal gas Equation, T = 434.98°R = 435°R

b) Using Van Der Waal's Equation, T = 637.32°R = 637°R

c) T obtained from the refrigerant tables at P = 400 psia and v = 0.1144 ft³/lbm is T = 559.67°R = 560°R

Explanation:

a) Ideal gas Equation

PV = mRT

T = PV/mR

P = pressure = 400 psia

V/m = specific volume = 0.1144 ft³/lbm

R = gas constant = 0.1052 psia.ft³/lbm.°R

T = 400 × 0.1144/0.1052 = 434.98 °R

b) Van Der Waal's Equation

T = (1/R) (P + (a/v²)) (v - b)

a = Van Der Waal's constant = (27R²(T꜀ᵣ)²)/(64P꜀ᵣ)

R = 0.1052 psia.ft³/lbm.°R

T꜀ᵣ = critical temperature for refrigerant-134a (from the refrigerant tables) = 673.6°R

P꜀ᵣ = critical pressure for refrigerant-134a (from the refrigerant tables) = 588.7 psia

a = (27 × 0.1052² × 673.6²)/(64 × 588.7)

a = 3.596 ft⁶.psia/lbm²

b = (RT꜀ᵣ)/8P꜀ᵣ

b = (0.1052 × 673.6)/(8 × 588.7) = 0.01504 ft³/lbm

T = (1/0.1052) (400 + (3.596/0.1144²) (0.1144 - 0.01504) = 637.32°R

c) The temperature for the refrigerant-134a as obtained from the refrigerant tables at P = 400 psia and v = 0.1144 ft³/lbm is

T = 100°F = 559.67°R

7 0
3 years ago
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