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Olenka [21]
3 years ago
14

A pipeline (NPS = 14 in; schedule = 80) has a length of 200 m. Water (15℃) is flowing at 0.16 m3/s. What is the pipe head loss f

or the water supply over a distance of 200 m? Hint: Use an iterative approach for the empirical equation.
Engineering
1 answer:
dangina [55]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Head loss is 1.64

Explanation:

Given data:

Length (L) = 200 m

Discharge (Q) = 0.16 m3/s

According to table of nominal pipe size , for schedule 80 , NPS 14,  pipe has diameter (D)= 12.5 in or 31.8 cm 0.318 m

We know, head\ loss  = \frac{f L V^2}{( 2 g D)}

where, f = Darcy friction factor

V = flow velocity

g = acceleration due to gravity

We know, flow rate Q = A x V

solving for V

V = \frac{Q}{A}

    = \frac{0.16}{\frac{\pi}{4} (0.318)^2} = 2.015 m/s

obtained Darcy friction factor  

calculate Reynold number (Re) ,

Re = \frac{\rho V D}{\mu}

where,\rho = density of water

\mu = Dynamic viscosity of water at 15 degree  C = 0.001 Ns/m2

so reynold number is

Re = \frac{1000\times 2.015\times 0.318}{0.001}

            = 6.4 x 10^5

For Schedule 80 PVC pipes , roughness (e) is  0.0015 mm

Relative roughness (e/D) = 0.0015 / 318 = 0.00005

from Moody diagram, for Re = 640000 and e/D = 0.00005 , Darcy friction factor , f = 0.0126

Therefore head loss is

HL = \frac{0.0126 (200)(2.015)^2}{( 2 \times 9.81 \times 0.318)}

HL = 1.64 m

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One kilogram of air, initially at 5 bar, 350 K, and 3 kg of carbon dioxide (CO2), initially at 2 bar, 450 K, are confined to opp
pentagon [3]

Answer:

Check the explanation

Explanation:

Energy alance of 2 closed systems: Heat from CO2 equals the heat that is added to air in

m_{a} c_{v,a}(T_{eq} -T_{a,i)} =m_{co2} c_{v,co2} (T_{co2,i} -T_{eq)}

1x0.723x(T_{eq} -350)=3x0.780x(450-T_{eq} ) ⇒T_{eq} = 426.4 °K

The initail volumes of the gases can be determined by the ideal gas equation of state,

V_{a,i}  = \frac{mRT_{a,i} }{P_{a,i} }=  \frac{1x (8.314 28.97 kJ kg • °K)x 350°K}{5 bar x 100KPa bar} = 0.201m^{3}

The equilibrium pressure of the gases can also be obtained by the ideal gas equation

P_{eq=\frac{(m_{a}R_{a}T_{eq})+(m_{a}R_{a}T_{eq} ) }{(V_{a,eq}+V_{CO2,eq)} } =\frac{(m_{a}R_{a}T_{eq})+(m_{a}R_{a}T_{eq} ) }{(V_{a,i}+V_{CO2,i)} }

P_{eq}= 1x(8.314 28.97)x426.4+3x(8.314 44)x426.4

                             (0.201+1.275)

= 246.67 KPa = 2.47 bar

6 0
2 years ago
A 46.0-g meter stick is balanced at its midpoint (50.0 cm, zero point is a left end of stick). Then a 210.0-g weight is hung wit
Anna71 [15]

Clockwise torque due to 100g is 0.1029 Nm and 200g is 1.4406 Nm. Clockwise torque due to stick mass is 0.2254 Nm and Counter-clockwise torque due to normal force is 1.7689 Nm.            

<h3>What is clockwise torque?</h3>

The right-hand rule for cross products determines the direction of torque, which is calculated as the cross product of force and distance. Your thumb will point in the direction of the torque if you place your palm in the direction of the applied force and extend your fingers from the pivot point in that direction.

A related right-hand rule relates the direction of the rotation to the direction of the torque. Your fingers will curl in the direction of rotation if you point your thumb in the direction of the torque.

Positive torques cause counter clockwise rotation, while negative torques cause clockwise rotation.

The sum of all torques must be zero at equilibrium since an object in equilibrium has no net torque.

When the force is applied in a direction perpendicular to the line connecting the pivot and the force, the torque is at its greatest.

You can calculate the torque's magnitude using

                                             \begin{displaymath}\tau =rF_{\bot }=rF\sin \theta .\end{displaymath}

To solve problems involving torques, follow these eight steps: read the issue, create a free-body diagram, locate the pivot point, write down the expressions for all torques, For equilibrium conditions, set the sum of torques to zero, list all known variables, pick the desired variable(s), write down equations involving those variable(s), solve the equations, plug in numbers, and test your solution.

Clockwise torque due to 100 g                                                                         ⇒ T1 = 0.105* 9.8* 0.1 = 0.1029 Nm

Clockwise torque due to 200 g                                                                                                      ⇒ T2 = 0.210* 9.8* 0.7 = 1.4406 Nm

Clockwise torque due to stick mass                                                                               ⇒ T3 = 0.046* 0.5* 9.8 =0.2254 Nm

Counter-clockwise torque due to normal force                                                                             ⇒ T4 = (0.046 + 0.21 + 0.105)*9.8* 0.5 = 1.7689 Nm

Learn more about torque

brainly.com/question/1544595

#SPJ4

7 0
10 months ago
The Hoover Dam is 221 m tall and 379 m wide. Approximating it as a flat plate, determine the effective resultant force on the da
IrinaVladis [17]

Answer:

2165800 Pa

Explanation:

See it in the pic.

3 0
2 years ago
Two rods, with masses MA and MB having a coefficient of restitution, e, move along a common line on a surface, figure 2. a) Find
ahrayia [7]

Answer:

A.) Find the answer in the explanation

B.) Ua = 7.33 m/s , Vb = 7.73 m/s

C.) Impulse = 17.6 Ns

D.) 49%

Explanation:

Let Ua = initial velocity of the rod A

Ub = initial velocity of the rod B

Va = final velocity of the rod A

Vb = final velocity of the rod B

Ma = mass of rod A

Mb = mass of rod B

Given that

Ma = 2kg

Mb = 1kg

Ub = 3 m/s

Va = 0

e = restitution coefficient = 0.65

The general expression for the velocities of the two rods after impact will be achieved by considering the conservation of linear momentum.

Please find the attached files for the solution

6 0
3 years ago
A hydraulic jump is induced in an 80 ft wide channel.The water depths on either side of the jump are 1 ft and 10 ft.Please calcu
krek1111 [17]

Answer:

a) 42.08 ft/sec

b) 3366.33 ft³/sec

c) 0.235

d) 18.225 ft

e) 3.80 ft

Explanation:

Given:

b = 80ft

y1 = 1 ft

y2 = 10ft

a) Let's take the formula:

\frac{y2}{y1} = \frac{1}{5} * \sqrt{1 + 8f^2 - 1}

10*2 = \sqrt{1 + 8f^2 - 1

1 + 8f² = (20+1)²

= 8f² = 440

f² = 55

f = 7.416

For velocity of the faster moving flow, we have :

\frac{V_1}{\sqrt{g*y_1}} = 7.416

V_1 = 7.416 *\sqrt{32.2*1}

V1 = 42.08 ft/sec

b) the flow rate will be calculated as

Q = VA

VA = V1 * b *y1

= 42.08 * 80 * 1

= 3366.66 ft³/sec

c) The Froude number of the sub-critical flow.

V2.A2 = 3366.66

Where A2 = 80ft * 10ft

Solving for V2, we have:

V_2 = \frac{3666.66}{80*10}

= 4.208 ft/sec

Froude number, F2 =

\frac{V_2}{g*y_2} = \frac{4.208}{32.2*10}

F2 = 0.235

d) El = \frac{(y_2 - y_1)^3}{4*y_1*y_2}

El = \frac{(10-1)^3}{4*1*10}

= \frac{9^3}{40}

= 18.225ft

e) for critical depth, we use :

y_c = [\frac{(\frac{3366.66}{80})^2}{32.2}]^1^/^3

= 3.80 ft

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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