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xeze [42]
4 years ago
14

g When the money market is drawn with the value of money on the vertical axis, the price level increases if a. money demand shif

ts right and decreases if money supply shifts right. b. money demand shifts right and decreases if money supply shifts left. c. money demand shifts left and decreases if money supply shifts right. d. money demand shifts left and decreases if money supply shifts left.
Business
1 answer:
Tatiana [17]4 years ago
8 0

Answer:

d. money demand shifts left and decreases if money supply shifts left.

Explanation:

The money market can be defined as a component of the financial market wherein, financial instruments with low risk, high liquidity and short-term maturities (usually 365days or less) such as federal funds, treasury bills, bills of exchange, commercial paper, certificates of deposit, repurchase agreements, etc are traded between banks and other financial institutions.

When the money market is drawn with the value of money on the vertical axis, the price level increases if money demand shifts left and decreases if money supply shifts left.

Also, when the money market is drawn with the value of money on the vertical axis, the value of money decreases, as price level  increases; causing quantity of money demanded to increase and to move rightward on the money demand curve.

However, there would be an increase in the demand of money, if the price level is above the equilibrium rate; thereby making the price level to fall when the money market is drawn with the value of money on the vertical axis.

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Prepare Job-Order Cost Sheets, Predetermined Overhead Rate, Ending Balance of WIP, Finished Goods, and COGS At the beginning of
vova2212 [387]

Answer and Explanation:

1. The computation of overhead rate based on direct labor cost is shown below:-

Overhead rate = Overhead applied × 100 ÷ Direct labor cost

= 888 × 100 ÷ 1,200

= 74%

2. The Preparation of job-order cost sheet for the four jobs is shown below:

Particulars                Job 86        Job 87        Job 88        Job 89

Beginning balance $6,888       $6,820

Direct materials       $3,000      $7,000         $2,100          $1,500

Direct labor              $800          $6,000        $900            $500

Applied overhead  

is 74% of direct labor $592           $4,440       $666            $370

Total                          $11,280       $24,260      $3,666      $2,370

3. The computation of ending balances of Work in Process and Finished Goods is shown below:-

Work in process of Job 88 = $3,666

Finished goods = Total of Job 86 + Total of Job 89

= $11,280 + $2,370

= $13,650

4. The computation of the Cost of Goods Sold for March is shown below:-

Cost of goods sold is

= Job 87

= $24,260

7 0
3 years ago
An investment counselor calls with a hot stock tip. he believes that if the economy remains​ strong, the investment will result
vlabodo [156]

Expected profit is the probability of receiving a profit multiplied by the profit

So

Strong 50,000 * .30 = 15,000

Moderate = 10,000 * .60 = 6,000

Recession = -50,000 * .10= -5,000

Add those up, and you should expect a profit of around 16,000

6 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
You wish to buy a cabin in 15 years. TODAY, the cabin costs $150,000. You believe the price of the cabin will inflate at 4% annu
vfiekz [6]

Answer:

I will need to invest 64,669.73 dollars now.

Explanation:

We will calcualte the future value of the cabin considering the inflation:

Principal \: (1+ inflation )^{time} = Amount

Principal 150,000.00

time  15 years

inflation 0.04000

150000 \: (1+ 0.04)^{15} = Amount

Amount 270,141.53

Then we calculate the present value of the lump sum at 15 years discounted at 10% which is the yield of the funds

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity  270,141.53

time   15 years

rate  0.10

\frac{270141.53}{(1 + 0.1)^{15} } = PV  

PV   64,669.73

we would need to deposit 64,669.73 today to get enough cash to purchase the bcabin in 15 years.

5 0
3 years ago
Manufacturing overhead data for the production of Product H by Shakira Company are as follows.Overhead incurred for 45,100 actua
Fittoniya [83]

Answer:

Total overhead cost variance                                      $

Standard fixed overhead cost ($9 x 45,100 hrs)    405,900

Less: Actual fixed overhead cost                             <u>411,000 </u>

Total overhead cost variance                                   <u> 5,100 (A)</u>

Explanation:

Total overhead variance is the difference between standard fixed overhead cost and actual fixed overhead cost. Standard fixed overhead cost is overhead rate multiplied by actual direct labour hours. Overhead rate is the total of variable overhead and fixed overhead rate ($8 + $1 = $9).

8 0
3 years ago
f interest rate parity (IRP) exists, then triangular arbitrage will not be possible. A. true. B. false.
Levart [38]

Answer:

A. True

Explanation:

Arbitrage refers to a situation wherein a gain is made owing to price discrepancy or unevenness in two markets. The rule for arbitrage is to buy from the markets where price is less and sell in the markets where price is higher.

Triangular arbitrage occurs wherein 3 different currencies are involved and the exchange rates are not uniform i.e a discrepancy exists and interest rate parity does not hold true.

Interest rate parity refers to the concept wherein the disparity between two currency exchange rates is adjusted by the respective interest rates of the two countries. When interest rate parity exists, no arbitrage is possible as markets are fairly priced.

3 0
3 years ago
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