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WITCHER [35]
3 years ago
9

Consider a bicycle wheel to be a ring of radius 30 cm and mass 1.5 kg. Neglect the mass of the axle and sprocket. If a force of

22 N is applied tangentially to a sprocket of radius 6 cm for 6 s, what angular speed does the wheel achieve, assuming it rolls without slipping?
Physics
1 answer:
vredina [299]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The angular speed after 6s  is \omega = 1466.67s^{-1}.

Explanation:

The equation

I\alpha  = Fd

relates the moment of inertia I of a rigid body, and its angular acceleration \alpha, with the force applied F at a distance d from the axis of rotation.

In our case, the force applied is F = 22N, at a distance d = 6cm =0.06m, to a ring with the moment of inertia of I =mr^2; therefore, the angular acceleration is

$\alpha =\frac{Fd}{I} $

$\alpha =\frac{22N*0.06m}{(1.5kg)*(0.06)^2} $

\alpha  = 244.44\: s^{-2}

Therefore, the angular speed \omega which is

\omega  = \alpha t

after 6 seconds is

\omega = 244.44$\: s^{-2}* 6s

\boxed{\omega = 1466.67s^{-1}}

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A small block is attached to an ideal spring and is moving in SHM on a horizontal, frictionless surface. When the amplitude of t
Maslowich

Answer:

a) The time taken to travel from 0.18 m to -0.18m when the amplitude is doubled = 2.76 s

b) The time taken to travel from 0.09 m to -0.09 m when the amplitude is doubled = 0.92 s

Explanation:

a) The period of a simple harmonic motion is given as T = (1/f) = (2π/w)

It is evident that the period doesn't depend on amplitude, that is, it is independent of amplitude.

Hence, the time it would take the block to move from its amplitude point to the negative of the amplitude point (0.09 m to -0.09 m) in the first case will be the same time it will take the block to move from its amplitude point to negative of the amplitude point in the second case (0.18 m to -0.18 m).

Hence, time taken to travel from 0.18 m to -0.18m when the amplitude is doubled is 2.76 s

b) Now that the amplitude has been doubled, the time taken to move from amplitude point to the negative amplitude point in simple harmonic motion, just like with waves, is exactly half of the time period.

The time period is defined as the time taken to complete a whole cycle and a while cycle involves movement from the amplitude to point to the negative amplitude point then fully back to the amplitude point. Hence,

0.5T = 2.76 s

T = 2 × 2.76 = 5.52 s

Note that the displacement of a body undergoing simple harmonic motion from the equilibrium position is given as

y = A cos wt (provided that there's no phase difference, that is, Φ = 0)

A = amplitude = 0.18 m

w = (2π/5.52) = 1.138 rad/s

When y = 0.09 m, the time = t₁₂ = ?

0.09 = 0.18 Cos 1.138t₁ (angles in radians)

Cos 1.138t₁ = 0.5

1.138t₁ = arccos (0.5) = (π/3)

t₁ = π/(3×1.138) = 0.92 s

When y = -0.09 m, the time = t₂ = ?

-0.09 = 0.18 Cos 1.138t₂ (angles in radians)

Cos 1.138t₂ = -0.5

1.138t₂ = arccos (-0.5) = (2π/3)

t₂ = 2π/(3×1.138) = 1.84 s

Time taken to move from y = 0.09 m to y = -0.09 m is then t = t₂ - t₁ = 1.84 - 0.92 = 0.92 s

Hope this Helps!!!

3 0
3 years ago
The acceleration due to gravity, g , is constant at sea level on the Earth's surface. However, the acceleration decreases as an
blsea [12.9K]

Answer:

  g    = g₀   [1- 2 h / Re + 3 (h / Re)²]

Explanation:

The law of universal gravitation is

        F = G m Me / Re²

Where g is the universal gravitational constant, m and Me are the mass of the body and the Earth, respectively and R is the distance between them

      F = G Me /Re²  m

We call gravity acceleration a

       g₀ = G Me / Re².

When the body is at a height h above the surface the distance is

            R = Re + h

Therefore  the attractive force is

      F = G Me m / (Re + h)²

Let's take Re's common factor

      F = G Me / Re²  m / (1+ h / Re)²

As Re has a value of 6.37 10⁶ m and the height of the body in general is less than 10⁴ m, the h / Re term is very small, so we can perform a series expansion

         (1+ h / Re)⁻² = 1 -2 h / Re + 6/2 (h / Re) 2 + ...

Let's replace

       F = G Me /Re²   m [1- 2 h / Re + 3 (h / Re)²]

       F = g₀   m  [1- 2 h / Re + 3 (h / Re)²]

If we call the force of attraction at height

     m g =g₀ m  [1- 2 h / Re + 3 (h / Re)²]

       g    = g₀   [1- 2 h / Re + 3 (h / Re)²]

3 0
3 years ago
A steady beam of alpha particles (q = + 2e, mass m = 6.68 × 10-27 kg) traveling with constant kinetic energy 22 MeV carries a cu
cluponka [151]

Answer:

Explanation:

q = 2e = 3.2 x 10^-19 C

mass, m = 6.68 x 10^-27 kg

Kinetic energy, K = 22 MeV

Current, i = 0.27 micro Ampere = 0.27 x 10^-6 A

(a) time, t = 2.8 s

Let N be the alpha particles strike the surface.

N x 2e = q

N x 3.2 x 10^-19 = i t

N x 3.2 x 10^-19 = 0.27 x 10^-6 x 2.8

N = 2.36 x 10^12

(b) Length, L = 16 cm = 0.16 m

Let N be the alpha particles

K = 0.5 x mv²

22 x 1.6 x 10^-13 = 0.5 x 6.68 x 10^-27 x v²

v² = 1.054 x 10^15

v = 3.25 x 10^7 m/s

So, N x 2e = i x t

N x 2e = i x L / v

N x 3.2 x 10^-19 = 2.7 x 10^-7 x 0.16 / (3.25 x 10^7)

N = 4153.85

(c) Us ethe conservation of energy

Kinetic energy = Potential energy

K = q x V

22 x 1.6 x 10^-13 = 2 x 1.5 x 10^-19 x V

V = 1.17 x 10^7 V

5 0
3 years ago
Explain how machines can be useful if the output is always less than the input work
Anni [7]

Because: Some of the work done by the machine is used to overcome the friction created by the use of the machine. ... Work output can never be greater than work input. Machines allow force to be applied over a greater distance, which means that less force will be needed for the same amount of work.

6 0
3 years ago
A crate falls from an airplane flying horizontally at an altitude of 2,000 m.
Hatshy [7]

Answer:

20.2 seconds

Explanation:

The airplane (and therefore the crate) initially has no vertical velocity, so v₀ = 0 m/s.

The crate is in free fall, so a = -9.8 m/s².

The crate falls downward, so Δx = -2000 m.

Find: t, the time it takes for the crate to land.

Δx = v₀ t + ½ at²

-2000 m = (0 m/s) t + ½ (-9.8 m/s²) t²

t = 20.2 s

It takes 20.2 seconds for the crate to land.

7 0
3 years ago
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