3 years ago

PLEASE HELP QUICK !!

Mathematics

1 answer:

babunello [35]3 years ago

4 0

Step-by-step explanation:

given f(x) = 2/x and g(x) = 2/x

f(g(x)) = 2/(g(x)) = 2/2/x = x/2 × 2 = x

g(f(x)) = 2/(f(x)) = 2/2/x = x/2 × 2 = x

therefore they are inverses

since f(g(x)) = g(f(x)) = x.

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