Step-by-step explanation:
the answer is c: 2..............
Answer:
$25.80
Step-by-step explanation:
40% = 40/ 100 = 4/10 = 0,4
There is a 40% discount, which means that the amount multiplied by more then 1 (for example 1,4) would increase the amount... That isn't right because it is a discount!
So you need to subtract the 40%, so (1 - 0.4 =) 0.6
The amount multiplied by 0.6 will be the correct amount, being $43 * 0.6 = $25.80 (rounded to the nearest cent).
The amount the item actually cost after the discount is $25.80
Answer:
Infinitely many solutions.
Step-by-step explanation:
2 (n - 1) + 4n = 2 (3n - 1) Let's simplify this to solve it.
2n - 2 + 4n = 6n - 2 Distribute 2(n-1) and 2(3n-1)
2n + 4n - 2 = 6n - 2 Rearrange the left side of the equation.
6n - 2 = 6n - 2 Add 2n + 4n.
-6n -6n Subtract 6n from both sides.
-2 = -2
the answer is infinitely many solutions, meaning that n can be any real number.
Answer:
(17y/8) - 101 or (17y - 808) / 8
Step-by-step explanation:
Please enclose the fractional coefficient 1/8 inside paretheses:
(1/8)y + 17 + 2y - 118.
Now combine like terms. (1/8)y + 2y comes to (1/8)y + 16y/8 = (17/8)y.
We thus have (17/8)y + 17 - 118. Leaving (17/8)y alone, evaluate 17 - 118:
(17y/8) - 101
You could leave your answer in this form, or combine the terms using the LCD 8:
17y - 808
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8
Its really not that hard work out them all then your find the answer
