The answer is 80. This is because we can find the area of one of the triangles by (4*8)/2 = 16. We multiply this by 4 since there are 4 triangles. 16*4 = 64. Now finally, we add the area of the base to this value. 4*4+64=80. Therefore the answer is 80 cm^2
Answer:44
Step-by-step explanation:
-8(-6) -4
48 -4
44
3/4 x n=1......n equals 4/3.
In order for n to equal 1 you have to find a number that will make 3/4 a whole number after you multiply it. Usually in problems like these the answer is usually the fraction but flipped around. So 3/4 and 4/3....when you multiply the numerators you get 12 and when you multiply the denominator you get 12 so 12/12, which equals 1. hope that makes sense.
No, it's not possible for the sides of a triangle to have those lengths.
According to the triangle inequality theorem, the sum of any two sides of the triangle has to be bigger than the last side. Let's test this.

This inequality satisfies the triangle inequality theorem.

This also satisfies the theorem.

Uh oh. This does not satisfy the triangle inequality theorem. Thus, it is not possible for a triangle to have these side lengths.