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Maksim231197 [3]
3 years ago
13

How can two machines appear identical and yet not have the same actual mechanical advantage

Physics
1 answer:
STatiana [176]3 years ago
4 0
There are many factors which contributes as to how a machine will be processing the input energy and convert it to output energy. Even with identical mechanism, these factors will have major effect on the output. Some factors are deflection, friction and wear. Some system maybe exposed to poor lubrication than the other which'll produce more friction and wear thus lower mechanical advantage.
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Answer:

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Explanation:

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r = \sqrt{(x_{2}-x_{1})^2+(y_{2}-y_{1})^2+(z_{2}-z_{1})^2}\\

where,

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(x₁, y₁, z₁) = (2, 5, 1)

(x₂, y₂, z₂) = (3, 2, 3)

Therefore,

r = \sqrt{(3-2)^2+(2-5)^2+(3-1)^2}\\r = 3.741\ m\\

Now, we will calculate the magnitude of the force between the charges by using Coulomb's Law:

F = \frac{kq_{1}q_{2}}{r^2}\\

where,

F = magnitude of force = ?

k = Coulomb's Constant = 9 x 10⁹ Nm²/C²

q₁ = magnitude of first charge = 2 x 10⁻⁸ C

q₂ = magnitude of second charge = 3 x 10⁻⁷ C

r = distance between the charges = 3.741 m

Therefore,

F = \frac{(9\ x\ 10^9\ Nm^2/C^2)(2\ x\ 10^{-8}\ C)(3\ x\ 10^{-7}\ C)}{(3.741\ m)^2}\\

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If a scientist is studying a model that is a widely accepted theory about the position of planets and sun, the model would most likely help the scientist to understand facts that can't be easily observed. That will make the correct answer to be C. 
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Answer and Explanation:

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Answer:

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