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ohaa [14]
3 years ago
8

How do you do distributive property

Mathematics
2 answers:
Wittaler [7]3 years ago
5 0
<span>In abstract algebra and formal logic, the distributive property of binary operations generalizes the distributive law from elementary algebra. In propositional logic, distribution refers to two valid rules of replacement. The rules allow one to reformulate conjunctions and disjunctions within logical proofs.</span>
valkas [14]3 years ago
4 0
The distributive property generally refers to the distributive property of multiplication. This property lets you multiply a number by a sum by multiplying that number by each addend and then adding those products.

Ex.   5 ( 2+3+6 )  -->     5(2) + 5(3) + 5(6)
          10 + 15 + 30 = 55
          
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MrRa [10]
I think the answer is A i’m sorry if it’s wrong i’m not for sure.
6 0
3 years ago
(help) Miller’s Farm had apples on sale for $1.78 a pound. Maria spent $15.21 on apples. How many pounds did she buy?
jolli1 [7]

Answer:

8.5 pounds

Step-by-step explanation:

$ 1.78 - 1 pound

$ 15.21 - 15.21/1.78

= 8.5

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2 years ago
a six sided die is rolled 15 times with these results (1,1) (2,3) (3,4) (4,4) (5,1) (6,2) what is the experimental probabilitly
GenaCL600 [577]

Answer:

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5 0
2 years ago
Segments
Ipatiy [6.2K]

There are several ways two triangles can be congruent.

  • \mathbf{AC = BD}<em> congruent by SAS</em>
  • \mathbf{\angle ABC \cong \angle BAD}<em> congruent by corresponding theorem</em>

In \mathbf{\triangle AOL} and \mathbf{\triangle BOK} (see attachment), we have the following observations

1.\ \mathbf{AO = DO} --- Because O is the midpoint of line segment AD

2.\ \mathbf{BO = CO} --- Because O is the midpoint of line segment BC

3.\ \mathbf{\angle AOB =\angle COD} ---- Because vertical angles are congruent

4.\ \mathbf{\angle AOC =\angle BOD} ---- Because vertical angles are congruent

Using the SAS (<em>side-angle-side</em>) postulate, we have:

\mathbf{AC = BD}

Using corresponding theorem,

\mathbf{\angle ABC \cong \angle BAD} ---- i.e. both triangles are congruent

The above congruence equation is true because:

  1. <em>2 sides of both triangles are congruent</em>
  2. <em>1 angle each of both triangles is equal</em>
  3. <em>Corresponding angles are equal</em>

See attachment

Read more about congruence triangles at:

brainly.com/question/20517835

3 0
2 years ago
What is the solution to the inequality -4x&lt;8
Ivahew [28]

Answer:

x>-2

Step-by-step explanation:

because it is divided by -4.

6 0
3 years ago
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