Answer:
Explanation:
potential energy of compressed spring
= 1/2 k d²
= 1/2 x 730 d²
= 365 d²
This energy will be given to block of mass of 1.2 kg in the form of kinetic energy .
Kinetic energy after crossing the rough patch
= 1/2 x 1.2 x 2.3²
= 3.174 J
Loss of energy
= 365 d² - 3.174
This loss is due to negative work done by frictional force
work done by friction = friction force x width of patch
= μmg d , μ = coefficient of friction , m is mass of block , d is width of patch
= .44 x 1.2 x 9.8 x .05
= .2587 J
365 d² - 3.174 = .2587
365 d² = 3.4327
d² = 3.4327 / 365
= .0094
d = .097 m
= 9.7 cm
If friction increases , loss of energy increases . so to achieve same kinetic energy , d will have to be increased so that initial energy increases so compensate increased loss .
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The key thing to remember about an elastic collision is that it preserves both momentum and kinetic energy. For this problem I will assume the more massive particle has a mass of 1 and that the initial velocities are 1 and -1. The ratio of the masses will be represented by the less massive particle and will have the value "r"
The equation for kinetic energy is
E = 1/2MV^2.
So the energy for the system prior to collision is
0.5r(-1)^2 + 0.5(1)^2 = 0.5r + 0.5
The energy after the collision is
0.5rv^2
Setting the two equations equal to each other
0.5r + 0.5 = 0.5rv^2
r + 1 = rv^2
(r + 1)/r = v^2
sqrt((r + 1)/r) = v
The momentum prior to collision is
-1r + 1
Momentum after collision is
rv
Setting the equations equal to each other
rv = -1r + 1
rv +1r = 1
r(v+1) = 1
Now we have 2 equations with 2 unknowns.
sqrt((r + 1)/r) = v
r(v+1) = 1
Substitute the value v in the 2nd equation with sqrt((r+1)/r) and solve for r.
r(sqrt((r + 1)/r)+1) = 1
r*sqrt((r + 1)/r) + r = 1
r*sqrt(1+1/r) + r = 1
r*sqrt(1+1/r) = 1 - r
r^2*(1+1/r) = 1 - 2r + r^2
r^2 + r = 1 - 2r + r^2
r = 1 - 2r
3r = 1
r = 1/3
So the less massive particle is 1/3 the mass of the more massive particle.</span>
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accept the flow of electrons.resist the flow of electrons.accept the flow of protons.resist the flow of protons.It is one of these </span>
The angular velocity of the wheel at the bottom of the incline is 4.429 rad/sec
The angular velocity (ω) of an object is the rate at which the object's angle position is changing in relation to time.
For a wheel attached to an incline angle, the angular velocity can be computed by considering the conservation of energy theorem.
As such the total kinetic energy (K.E) and rotational kinetic energy (R.K.E) at a point is equal to the total potential energy (P.E) at the other point.
i.e.
P.E = K.E + R.K.E
Therefore, we can conclude that the angular velocity of the wheel at the bottom of the incline is 4.429 rad/sec
Learn more about angular velocity here:
brainly.com/question/1452612
Answer:
Explanation:
Distance between plates d = 2 x 10⁻³m
Potential diff applied = 5 x 10³ V
Electric field = Potential diff applied / d
= 5 x 10³ / 2 x 10⁻³
= 2.5 x 10⁶ V/m
This is less than breakdown strength for air 3.0×10⁶ V/m
b ) Let the plates be at a separation of d .so
5 x 10³ / d = 3.0×10⁶ ( break down voltage )
d = 5 x 10³ / 3.0×10⁶
= 1.67 x 10⁻³ m
= 1.67 mm.
