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erica [24]
3 years ago
13

Plzzzz help will give brainliest needs to be done my 11:30 plzz will fail in not answered by that time

Mathematics
1 answer:
navik [9.2K]3 years ago
3 0

(c/ b * 0) is just (c/0) and you cannot divide by 0

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Hey, I need help on this assignment
True [87]

Step-by-step explanation:

YO ≅ NZ

Given

YO + OZ ≅ NZ + OZ

Additive property

YZ ≅ NO

Segment addition postulate

∠M ≅ ∠X, ∠N ≅ ∠Y

Given

ΔMNO ≅ ΔXYZ

AAS congruence

3 0
3 years ago
Express in standard form 15/65
Naily [24]
The correct answer is 3/13. Divided both by 5.
15/65
3/13
6 0
3 years ago
A bakery sold a total of 3028 coffee buns and blueberry buns. 1560 more coffee buns were sold than the blueberry buns. How many
Natali [406]

Answer:

\large{ \tt{ -  \: HEY  \: AH~\:♡ }}

\large{ \tt{✺ \: SOLUTION}} :

  • Provided : Total sold bakery items : 3028 coffee buns and blueberry buns & 1560 more coffee buns were sold than the blueberry buns.

  • To find : Number of coffee buns the bakery sold

- First , Subtract 1560 from 3028 :

\large{ \tt{→ \: 3028 - 1560 = 1468}}

We just subtacted the number of more coffee buns from the number of told items sold which means that the number of coffee buns and the number of blueberry buns sold are equal for now. Now divide 1428 by 2 :

\large{ \tt{→ \frac{1428}{2} = 734 }}

Now - Let's get back to the second sentence of the question and add 734 & 1560 :

\large{ \tt{→ \: 734 + 1560 =  \large{ \boxed{2294}}}}

  • Hence , The bakery sold 2294 coffee buns.

- Hope this helps , oneesan! ;)

7 0
3 years ago
olga worked 37.5 hours last week qt the library and earned $12.50 an hour. if she gets a $2.50 per hour raise, how many hours wi
Airida [17]
(37.5)(12.5)=x(15)
468.75=15x
x=31.25

she will have to work 31.25 hours in order to earn the same amount of money
3 0
3 years ago
Please<br> <img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20%5Clim_%7Bn%20%5Cto%20%5Cinfty%7D%20%5Cfrac%7B%28n%2B1%29%21%7D%7Bn%21-%28n%2B1%
Nana76 [90]
Hi there!
We are given the function - 
\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{(n+1)!}{n!-(n+1)!}
and are told to find the limit of the function. 
The limit would be n approaches infinity, giving us an answer of -1. 
Here is how you solve this:
\frac{(n+1)!}{n!-(n+1)!}
Divide by (n + 1)! - 
\frac{1}{\frac{1}{n+1}-1 }
Now, we can refine the function - 
\lim_{n \to \infty}\frac{1}{\frac{1}{n+1}-1 }
Now, just simplify. This gives us - 
\lim_{n \to \infty} (1)
We can use the rule \lim_{x \to a}c=c to simplify the whole thing to get 1. Finally, we plug it back into our second derived equation to get 1/-1, which simplifies to -1. Therefore, the answer is -1. Hope this helped and have a great day!


3 0
3 years ago
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